Practice Free 220-1201 Exam Online Questions
Question #71
Which of the following is used to verify the functionality of an Ethernet NIC?
- A . Toner probe
- B . Loopback plug
- C . Wi-Fi analyzer
- D . Punchdown tool
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A loopback plug is specifically designed to test whether a network interface card (NIC) can successfully transmit and receive signals at the physical/data-link level. For an Ethernet NIC, the loopback plug connects the transmit (TX) pins back to the receive (RX) pins on the NIC’s port (or through an adapter), creating a closed circuit. When the NIC sends data, it should immediately “see” that data returned, confirming the NIC’s port electronics and basic send/receive functionality are working. This is a direct, controlled test that helps isolate the problem: if the NIC fails the loopback test, the issue is likely the NIC/port/driver configuration rather than the cabling or network infrastructure.
The other tools don’t validate NIC function in this way: a toner probe traces and identifies cables, a Wi-Fi analyzer evaluates wireless networks (not wired Ethernet NICs), and a punchdown tool terminates wires into patch panels or keystone jacks. Therefore, the best CompTIA A+ answer for verifying an Ethernet NIC’s functionality is a loopback plug.
B
Explanation:
A loopback plug is specifically designed to test whether a network interface card (NIC) can successfully transmit and receive signals at the physical/data-link level. For an Ethernet NIC, the loopback plug connects the transmit (TX) pins back to the receive (RX) pins on the NIC’s port (or through an adapter), creating a closed circuit. When the NIC sends data, it should immediately “see” that data returned, confirming the NIC’s port electronics and basic send/receive functionality are working. This is a direct, controlled test that helps isolate the problem: if the NIC fails the loopback test, the issue is likely the NIC/port/driver configuration rather than the cabling or network infrastructure.
The other tools don’t validate NIC function in this way: a toner probe traces and identifies cables, a Wi-Fi analyzer evaluates wireless networks (not wired Ethernet NICs), and a punchdown tool terminates wires into patch panels or keystone jacks. Therefore, the best CompTIA A+ answer for verifying an Ethernet NIC’s functionality is a loopback plug.
Question #72
A technician is installing a new high-end graphics card that uses a 12VHPWR connector.
Which of the following is the maximum wattage supported by this power connector?
- A . 400W
- B . MOW
- C . 600W
- D . 700W
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The 12VHPWR connector can supply up to 600 watts of power, designed for high-end graphics cards.
Why Not A (400W): This is less than the connector’s maximum capability.
Why Not B (MOW): This is an invalid option.
Why Not D (700W): The maximum supported power is 600W.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.4, power supply and connectors.
C
Explanation:
The 12VHPWR connector can supply up to 600 watts of power, designed for high-end graphics cards.
Why Not A (400W): This is less than the connector’s maximum capability.
Why Not B (MOW): This is an invalid option.
Why Not D (700W): The maximum supported power is 600W.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.4, power supply and connectors.
Question #73
A technician observes slow startup times on a laptop.
Which of the following is most likely causing the issue?
- A . HDD
- B . RAM
- C . NIC
- D . BIOS
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A hard disk drive (HDD), especially if it’s older or nearly full, is the most common cause of slow startup times in laptops. HDDs are much slower than SSDs and can significantly bottleneck the boot process.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.1 C Troubleshoot common hardware problems:
“A slow startup or sluggish system performance is commonly due to a failing or fragmented hard disk drive (HDD). Replacing with an SSD can greatly improve boot times and overall system responsiveness.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Troubleshooting PC Hardware CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.1
A
Explanation:
A hard disk drive (HDD), especially if it’s older or nearly full, is the most common cause of slow startup times in laptops. HDDs are much slower than SSDs and can significantly bottleneck the boot process.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.1 C Troubleshoot common hardware problems:
“A slow startup or sluggish system performance is commonly due to a failing or fragmented hard disk drive (HDD). Replacing with an SSD can greatly improve boot times and overall system responsiveness.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Troubleshooting PC Hardware CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.1
Question #74
Which of the following will a company most likely use to control which websites a user can access?
- A . Proxy server
- B . Spam gateway
- C . DHCP server
- D . RADIUS server
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A proxy server acts as an intermediary between client devices and the internet. One of its primary functions is URL filtering, web-content restriction, and logging user activity. When a user attempts to connect to a website, the request first goes to the proxy, where filtering rules determine whether the site is allowed or blocked. CompTIA A+ 220-1201 emphasizes that proxies help organizations control outbound traffic, enforce browsing policies, block malicious or inappropriate content, and improve security through caching.
Spam gateways only filter email, DHCP assigns IP addresses, and RADIUS handles authentication, none of which enforce website restriction. Therefore, the correct solution for content control is a proxy server, as stated in the Networking domain of the A+ curriculum.
A
Explanation:
A proxy server acts as an intermediary between client devices and the internet. One of its primary functions is URL filtering, web-content restriction, and logging user activity. When a user attempts to connect to a website, the request first goes to the proxy, where filtering rules determine whether the site is allowed or blocked. CompTIA A+ 220-1201 emphasizes that proxies help organizations control outbound traffic, enforce browsing policies, block malicious or inappropriate content, and improve security through caching.
Spam gateways only filter email, DHCP assigns IP addresses, and RADIUS handles authentication, none of which enforce website restriction. Therefore, the correct solution for content control is a proxy server, as stated in the Networking domain of the A+ curriculum.
Question #75
A network printer consistently produces faint printouts. Users report that the issue persists across different computers and print jobs.
Which of the following steps should the technician take first?
- A . Run a printer calibration process.
- B . Replace the toner cartridge.
- C . Reinstall the printer drivers.
- D . Adjust the fuser temperature.
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Because the printer is a network printer and the issue occurs across multiple computers and different print jobs, the problem is very likely within the printer hardware/consumables, not the PC drivers or a single workstation configuration. Faint printing is a classic symptom of low or depleted toner (or an aging toner cartridge that is no longer distributing toner evenly). In CompTIA A+ troubleshooting methodology, you start with the most probable and simplest cause before performing deeper configuration changes or part-level adjustments. Replacing the toner cartridge is a straightforward first action that often resolves consistent faint output quickly and restores normal print density.
Reinstalling printer drivers would typically be indicated if only one computer had issues or if output problems changed based on driver settings; that is not the case here. Adjusting fuser temperature is not a normal first-line step for faint prints and is usually associated with toner not bonding properly (smearing or flaking), not consistently light output. Calibration can be useful for alignment or color/quality tuning, but it does not usually fix a persistent, uniform faintness caused by insufficient toner. Therefore, replace the toner cartridge first.
B
Explanation:
Because the printer is a network printer and the issue occurs across multiple computers and different print jobs, the problem is very likely within the printer hardware/consumables, not the PC drivers or a single workstation configuration. Faint printing is a classic symptom of low or depleted toner (or an aging toner cartridge that is no longer distributing toner evenly). In CompTIA A+ troubleshooting methodology, you start with the most probable and simplest cause before performing deeper configuration changes or part-level adjustments. Replacing the toner cartridge is a straightforward first action that often resolves consistent faint output quickly and restores normal print density.
Reinstalling printer drivers would typically be indicated if only one computer had issues or if output problems changed based on driver settings; that is not the case here. Adjusting fuser temperature is not a normal first-line step for faint prints and is usually associated with toner not bonding properly (smearing or flaking), not consistently light output. Calibration can be useful for alignment or color/quality tuning, but it does not usually fix a persistent, uniform faintness caused by insufficient toner. Therefore, replace the toner cartridge first.
Question #76
A company needs to keep a record of tasks performed by an application.
Which of the following should the company most likely implement as part of a solution?
- A . Fileshare
- B . Syslog
- C . Database
- D . SAN
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Syslog is used to log system events and tasks performed by applications, providing a centralized record of activity.
Why Not A (Fileshare): Fileshares store files but are not designed for event logging.
Why Not C (Database): Databases can store logs but are not a logging mechanism themselves.
Why Not D (SAN): A SAN is a storage solution, not a logging tool.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, system monitoring and logging.
B
Explanation:
Syslog is used to log system events and tasks performed by applications, providing a centralized record of activity.
Why Not A (Fileshare): Fileshares store files but are not designed for event logging.
Why Not C (Database): Databases can store logs but are not a logging mechanism themselves.
Why Not D (SAN): A SAN is a storage solution, not a logging tool.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, system monitoring and logging.
Question #77
Which of the following services is used to allocate IP addresses in an enterprise-wide environment?
- A . DNS
- B . Syslog
- C . Telnet
- D . DHCP
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a network service used to automatically assign IP addresses and other network configuration details (such as subnet masks and default gateways) to devices on an enterprise-wide network.
Why Not A (DNS): DNS resolves domain names to IP addresses but does not allocate IP addresses.
Why Not B (Syslog): Syslog is used for logging system events, not IP address management.
Why Not C (Telnet): Telnet is a protocol for remote access, not for IP allocation.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, DHCP concepts.
D
Explanation:
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a network service used to automatically assign IP addresses and other network configuration details (such as subnet masks and default gateways) to devices on an enterprise-wide network.
Why Not A (DNS): DNS resolves domain names to IP addresses but does not allocate IP addresses.
Why Not B (Syslog): Syslog is used for logging system events, not IP address management.
Why Not C (Telnet): Telnet is a protocol for remote access, not for IP allocation.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, DHCP concepts.
Question #78
Which of the following ports should a technician disable to increase the security of remote connectivity?
- A . 22
- B . 23
- C . 25
- D . 53
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Port 23 is used by Telnet, an unencrypted remote connection protocol that poses significant security risks. Disabling Telnet and using secure alternatives like SSH (port 22) is best practice.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.1 C Common ports and protocols:
"Port 23 (Telnet) provides unencrypted remote access and should be disabled to increase security. Use SSH (port 22) for secure remote connections."
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Ports and Protocols CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.1
B
Explanation:
Port 23 is used by Telnet, an unencrypted remote connection protocol that poses significant security risks. Disabling Telnet and using secure alternatives like SSH (port 22) is best practice.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.1 C Common ports and protocols:
"Port 23 (Telnet) provides unencrypted remote access and should be disabled to increase security. Use SSH (port 22) for secure remote connections."
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Ports and Protocols CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.1
Question #79
Which of the following cloud delivery models should an organization choose when it requires ownership of all physical hardware?
- A . Hybrid cloud
- B . Private cloud
- C . Public cloud
- D . IaaS
- E . PaaS
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A private cloud is the best choice when an organization requires ownership and control of all physical hardware. In CompTIA A+ terms, a private cloud is a cloud deployment model where the cloud infrastructure is dedicated to a single organization and can be implemented on-premises (or hosted for that organization only). If the requirement explicitly states the organization must own the servers, storage, and network equipment, that aligns with a private cloud built and maintained using the organization’s own datacenter resources. This provides greater control over security, compliance, customization, and data governance compared with shared models.
A public cloud is owned and operated by a third-party provider, so the organization does not own the underlying hardware. A hybrid cloud combines private and public components; since part of it relies on provider-owned infrastructure, it does not meet the requirement of owning all physical hardware. IaaS and PaaS are cloud service models (what is consumed), not deployment/delivery models (how it is deployed), and they commonly run on provider-owned hardware as well. Therefore, Private cloud is the correct answer.
B
Explanation:
A private cloud is the best choice when an organization requires ownership and control of all physical hardware. In CompTIA A+ terms, a private cloud is a cloud deployment model where the cloud infrastructure is dedicated to a single organization and can be implemented on-premises (or hosted for that organization only). If the requirement explicitly states the organization must own the servers, storage, and network equipment, that aligns with a private cloud built and maintained using the organization’s own datacenter resources. This provides greater control over security, compliance, customization, and data governance compared with shared models.
A public cloud is owned and operated by a third-party provider, so the organization does not own the underlying hardware. A hybrid cloud combines private and public components; since part of it relies on provider-owned infrastructure, it does not meet the requirement of owning all physical hardware. IaaS and PaaS are cloud service models (what is consumed), not deployment/delivery models (how it is deployed), and they commonly run on provider-owned hardware as well. Therefore, Private cloud is the correct answer.
Question #80
A company policy change requires all computers to be encrypted.
Which of the following technologies should a technician configure to meet this new requirement?
- A . NVMe
- B . RISC
- C . ARM
- D . TPM
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware chip used to enable encryption technologies such as BitLocker, providing secure key storage for system-wide encryption.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.5 C Security features:
“A TPM chip is required for system encryption, storing encryption keys securely on the hardware.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Security Hardware CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.5
D
Explanation:
A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware chip used to enable encryption technologies such as BitLocker, providing secure key storage for system-wide encryption.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.5 C Security features:
“A TPM chip is required for system encryption, storing encryption keys securely on the hardware.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Security Hardware CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.5