Practice Free 220-1201 Exam Online Questions
Question #101
A user reports that the printouts from a laser printer have lines and smudges on them. The printer is also intermittently misfeeding the paper.
Which of the following components should a technician replace to address this issue?
- A . Fuser
- B . Maintenance kit
- C . Corona wire
- D . Toner cartridge
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A maintenance kit for a laser printer often includes rollers, fuser, and other parts that wear out over time. If the printer is smudging and misfeeding, it’s a sign that multiple components are failing, which a maintenance kit is designed to resolve.
Option A (Fuser): May cause smudging if it’s not heating correctly, but it won’t resolve paper misfeeds alone.
Option C (Corona wire): Can cause poor image quality if dirty but doesn’t affect paper feeding.
Option D (Toner cartridge): Can cause streaks if defective, but not paper feed issues. CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective
Reference: Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, install and configure printers.
B
Explanation:
A maintenance kit for a laser printer often includes rollers, fuser, and other parts that wear out over time. If the printer is smudging and misfeeding, it’s a sign that multiple components are failing, which a maintenance kit is designed to resolve.
Option A (Fuser): May cause smudging if it’s not heating correctly, but it won’t resolve paper misfeeds alone.
Option C (Corona wire): Can cause poor image quality if dirty but doesn’t affect paper feeding.
Option D (Toner cartridge): Can cause streaks if defective, but not paper feed issues. CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective
Reference: Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, install and configure printers.
Question #102
An employee requires a workstation with three high-end graphics cards to render 3-D models. A technician must choose a power supply that meets the power requirements for the components and takes into consideration the mission-critical nature of the work.
Which of the following meet the requirements? (Select two).
- A . 12V output
- B . Modularity
- C . 20-pin motherboard connector
- D . Redundancy
- E . 3.3V output
- F . 240 VAC input
Correct Answer: B,D
B,D
Explanation:
A workstation running three high-end GPUs requires a power supply capable of both high wattage and stable, reliable output. In CompTIA A+ power supply fundamentals, modularity and redundancy are emphasized for high-performance and mission-critical systems.
Modularity (B) allows the technician to connect only the necessary cables, reducing clutter, improving airflow, and enabling proper cable routing to multiple GPUs. High-end graphics cards require multiple PCIe connectors, and modular PSUs provide the flexibility to attach the exact number of required GPU power cables. This is important for systems where space management and cooling efficiency directly affect performance and component longevity.
Redundancy (D) is critical for mission-critical workstations used for 3-D modeling and rendering. A redundant power supply ensures that if one PSU module fails, the system continues running without interruption. CompTIA A+ highlights redundancy as a key feature in professional environments where uptime is essential. These systems typically use dual hot-swappable power modules to guarantee continuous power delivery.
The other options do not meaningfully address the requirements. A 12V output is standard on all PSUs. A 20-pin connector is outdated; modern motherboards use 24-pin. The 3.3V rail is not relevant to GPU loads, and 240 VAC input only refers to wall power compatibility, not PSU capability. Therefore, modularity and redundancy best meet the workstation’s needs.
B,D
Explanation:
A workstation running three high-end GPUs requires a power supply capable of both high wattage and stable, reliable output. In CompTIA A+ power supply fundamentals, modularity and redundancy are emphasized for high-performance and mission-critical systems.
Modularity (B) allows the technician to connect only the necessary cables, reducing clutter, improving airflow, and enabling proper cable routing to multiple GPUs. High-end graphics cards require multiple PCIe connectors, and modular PSUs provide the flexibility to attach the exact number of required GPU power cables. This is important for systems where space management and cooling efficiency directly affect performance and component longevity.
Redundancy (D) is critical for mission-critical workstations used for 3-D modeling and rendering. A redundant power supply ensures that if one PSU module fails, the system continues running without interruption. CompTIA A+ highlights redundancy as a key feature in professional environments where uptime is essential. These systems typically use dual hot-swappable power modules to guarantee continuous power delivery.
The other options do not meaningfully address the requirements. A 12V output is standard on all PSUs. A 20-pin connector is outdated; modern motherboards use 24-pin. The 3.3V rail is not relevant to GPU loads, and 240 VAC input only refers to wall power compatibility, not PSU capability. Therefore, modularity and redundancy best meet the workstation’s needs.
Question #103
Which of the following is the best to use to stream real-time video from a network camera?
- A . UDP
- B . TCP
- C . FTP
- D . RDP
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is the preferred protocol for real-time video streaming, such as feeds from network cameras. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking protocols objectives, UDP prioritizes speed and low latency over guaranteed delivery, making it ideal for time-sensitive applications.
Real-time video streaming can tolerate occasional packet loss, but it cannot tolerate delays caused by retransmissions. UDP does not perform error checking or packet retransmission, which reduces overhead and ensures smooth, continuous playback. This is critical for live video feeds where delayed packets are useless.
TCP, while reliable, introduces latency due to acknowledgments and retransmissions, making it unsuitable for real-time streaming. FTP is a file transfer protocol and does not support live streaming. RDP is used for remote desktop access and is not designed for transmitting continuous real-time video streams from cameras.
CompTIA emphasizes understanding protocol selection based on application requirements, particularly distinguishing between reliability and performance needs. For live video, UDP is the optimal choice.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide C Network Protocols and Use Cases
A
Explanation:
UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is the preferred protocol for real-time video streaming, such as feeds from network cameras. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking protocols objectives, UDP prioritizes speed and low latency over guaranteed delivery, making it ideal for time-sensitive applications.
Real-time video streaming can tolerate occasional packet loss, but it cannot tolerate delays caused by retransmissions. UDP does not perform error checking or packet retransmission, which reduces overhead and ensures smooth, continuous playback. This is critical for live video feeds where delayed packets are useless.
TCP, while reliable, introduces latency due to acknowledgments and retransmissions, making it unsuitable for real-time streaming. FTP is a file transfer protocol and does not support live streaming. RDP is used for remote desktop access and is not designed for transmitting continuous real-time video streams from cameras.
CompTIA emphasizes understanding protocol selection based on application requirements, particularly distinguishing between reliability and performance needs. For live video, UDP is the optimal choice.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide C Network Protocols and Use Cases
Question #104
A company policy change requires all computers to be encrypted.
Which of the following technologies should a technician configure to meet this new requirement?
- A . NVMe
- B . RISC
- C . ARM
- D . TPM
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware chip used to enable encryption technologies such as BitLocker, providing secure key storage for system-wide encryption.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.5 C Security features:
“A TPM chip is required for system encryption, storing encryption keys securely on the hardware.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Security Hardware CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.5
D
Explanation:
A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware chip used to enable encryption technologies such as BitLocker, providing secure key storage for system-wide encryption.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.5 C Security features:
“A TPM chip is required for system encryption, storing encryption keys securely on the hardware.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Security Hardware CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.5
Question #104
A company policy change requires all computers to be encrypted.
Which of the following technologies should a technician configure to meet this new requirement?
- A . NVMe
- B . RISC
- C . ARM
- D . TPM
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware chip used to enable encryption technologies such as BitLocker, providing secure key storage for system-wide encryption.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.5 C Security features:
“A TPM chip is required for system encryption, storing encryption keys securely on the hardware.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Security Hardware CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.5
D
Explanation:
A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware chip used to enable encryption technologies such as BitLocker, providing secure key storage for system-wide encryption.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.5 C Security features:
“A TPM chip is required for system encryption, storing encryption keys securely on the hardware.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Security Hardware CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.5
Question #106
Which of the following protocol ports is used for secure remote access to a network device?
- A . 21
- B . 22
- C . 23
- D . 25
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Port 22 is used by SSH (Secure Shell), which is the standard protocol for secure remote administration of network devices such as switches, routers, firewalls, and Linux-based systems. CompTIA A+ Core 1 emphasizes knowing common ports and selecting secure management methods. SSH provides encrypted communication for both authentication and the session data, protecting usernames, passwords, and command output from being intercepted by packet sniffers. This makes it the preferred choice over older remote access methods.
In contrast, port 23 is Telnet, which is also used for remote terminal access but sends traffic in cleartext, making it insecure and generally discouraged in modern environments. Port 21 is FTP control traffic, used for file transfers and typically not secure unless paired with FTPS or replaced by SFTP (which actually runs over SSH on port 22). Port 25 is SMTP, used for sending email between mail servers and is unrelated to remote device management. Therefore, for secure remote access to a network device, SSH on port 22 is the correct answer.
B
Explanation:
Port 22 is used by SSH (Secure Shell), which is the standard protocol for secure remote administration of network devices such as switches, routers, firewalls, and Linux-based systems. CompTIA A+ Core 1 emphasizes knowing common ports and selecting secure management methods. SSH provides encrypted communication for both authentication and the session data, protecting usernames, passwords, and command output from being intercepted by packet sniffers. This makes it the preferred choice over older remote access methods.
In contrast, port 23 is Telnet, which is also used for remote terminal access but sends traffic in cleartext, making it insecure and generally discouraged in modern environments. Port 21 is FTP control traffic, used for file transfers and typically not secure unless paired with FTPS or replaced by SFTP (which actually runs over SSH on port 22). Port 25 is SMTP, used for sending email between mail servers and is unrelated to remote device management. Therefore, for secure remote access to a network device, SSH on port 22 is the correct answer.
Question #107
A technician needs to ensure all data communications on all network devices are encrypted when logging in to the console.
Which of the following protocols should the technician enable?
- A . SSH
- B . LDAP
- C . FTPS
- D . SMTP
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
SSH (Secure Shell) encrypts data communications for secure remote login and management of network devices, ensuring all console connections are encrypted.
Why Not B (LDAP): LDAP is used for directory services and does not encrypt by default.
Why Not C (FTPS): FTPS encrypts file transfers, not console communications.
Why Not D (SMTP): SMTP is used for email transmission, not for securing login sessions.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.7, network security protocols.
A
Explanation:
SSH (Secure Shell) encrypts data communications for secure remote login and management of network devices, ensuring all console connections are encrypted.
Why Not B (LDAP): LDAP is used for directory services and does not encrypt by default.
Why Not C (FTPS): FTPS encrypts file transfers, not console communications.
Why Not D (SMTP): SMTP is used for email transmission, not for securing login sessions.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.7, network security protocols.
Question #108
An IP address is automatically assigned to a single workstation in an office, but the technician confirms the IP address is not in the lease pool. This workstation is having issues accessing the internet and internal file shares.
Which of the following address types has been automatically assigned?
- A . APIPA
- B . Static
- C . DHCP
- D . Public IP
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
When a workstation automatically assigns itself an IP address that is not part of the DHCP lease pool, the system has most likely configured an APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) address. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking fundamentals, APIPA addresses fall within the range 169.254.0.0/16 and are assigned when a device cannot communicate with a DHCP server.
APIPA allows limited local network communication but does not provide access to the internet or network resources such as internal file shares that require routing or proper IP configuration. This explains why the workstation experiences connectivity issues.
A static IP address is manually configured and would not be automatically assigned. A DHCP address would come from the defined lease pool, which the technician has confirmed is not the case. A public IP address is assigned by an ISP and is not used directly on internal workstations.
CompTIA highlights APIPA as a key troubleshooting indicator of DHCP failure or network connectivity issues, making it the correct answer.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide C IP Addressing, DHCP, and Troubleshooting
A
Explanation:
When a workstation automatically assigns itself an IP address that is not part of the DHCP lease pool, the system has most likely configured an APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) address. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking fundamentals, APIPA addresses fall within the range 169.254.0.0/16 and are assigned when a device cannot communicate with a DHCP server.
APIPA allows limited local network communication but does not provide access to the internet or network resources such as internal file shares that require routing or proper IP configuration. This explains why the workstation experiences connectivity issues.
A static IP address is manually configured and would not be automatically assigned. A DHCP address would come from the defined lease pool, which the technician has confirmed is not the case. A public IP address is assigned by an ISP and is not used directly on internal workstations.
CompTIA highlights APIPA as a key troubleshooting indicator of DHCP failure or network connectivity issues, making it the correct answer.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide C IP Addressing, DHCP, and Troubleshooting
Question #109
Which of the following connection methods allows a mobile device to share an LTE connection with other nearby devices?
- A . Bluetooth
- B . NFC
- C . Cellular
- D . Hotspot
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Mobile devices can share their LTE or cellular data connection using a feature called tethering, more commonly known as hotspot mode. According to CompTIA A+ objectives on mobile networking technologies, a hotspot allows a smartphone or tablet to become a mini wireless router, broadcasting a Wi-Fi signal that nearby devices can connect to. The LTE (or 5G) connection is then shared over Wi-Fi, enabling laptops, tablets, or other phones to access the internet through the mobile device.
Bluetooth is capable of tethering but provides much lower bandwidth and slower speeds―not ideal for sharing LTE widely. NFC is used for close-range data exchange or payment transactions and cannot share internet service. "Cellular" refers to the phone’s own mobile network connection, not the mechanism for sharing it with others.
Hotspot functionality is specifically built into modern mobile OSs and supports WPA2/3 encryption, password protection, and device whitelisting. This makes it the most common and efficient method to share LTE connectivity with multiple nearby devices.
Thus, Hotspot (D) is the correct answer.
D
Explanation:
Mobile devices can share their LTE or cellular data connection using a feature called tethering, more commonly known as hotspot mode. According to CompTIA A+ objectives on mobile networking technologies, a hotspot allows a smartphone or tablet to become a mini wireless router, broadcasting a Wi-Fi signal that nearby devices can connect to. The LTE (or 5G) connection is then shared over Wi-Fi, enabling laptops, tablets, or other phones to access the internet through the mobile device.
Bluetooth is capable of tethering but provides much lower bandwidth and slower speeds―not ideal for sharing LTE widely. NFC is used for close-range data exchange or payment transactions and cannot share internet service. "Cellular" refers to the phone’s own mobile network connection, not the mechanism for sharing it with others.
Hotspot functionality is specifically built into modern mobile OSs and supports WPA2/3 encryption, password protection, and device whitelisting. This makes it the most common and efficient method to share LTE connectivity with multiple nearby devices.
Thus, Hotspot (D) is the correct answer.
Question #110
A technician receives a notification after a network outage that indicates the printer is not reachable.
Which of the following printer settings should the technician implement to prevent this issue in the future?
- A . Gateway
- B . Static IP
- C . APIPA
- D . DHCP
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Assigning a static IP to network printers ensures the printer’s address does not change after outages or DHCP lease expirations, preventing connectivity issues.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.4 C Printer network configuration:
“Printers should use static IPs to ensure they remain reachable and do not change addresses after network events.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Printer Networking CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.4
B
Explanation:
Assigning a static IP to network printers ensures the printer’s address does not change after outages or DHCP lease expirations, preventing connectivity issues.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.4 C Printer network configuration:
“Printers should use static IPs to ensure they remain reachable and do not change addresses after network events.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Printer Networking CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.4