Practice Free 220-1201 Exam Online Questions
Question #31
A technician is migrating an application server to another server.
Which of the following DNS records should the technician create to ensure seamless connectivity?
- A . TXT
- B . SPF
- C . DKIM
- D . CNAME
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
To ensure seamless connectivity during (and after) migrating an application server, the best DNS approach in CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) terms is to use a CNAME (Canonical Name) record, which creates an alias from one hostname to another. Instead of users connecting directly to a server’s changing hostname, they connect to a consistent service name (for example, app.company.com). That name can be configured as a CNAME pointing to the current host (such as server1.company.com). When the application is moved to a new server, the technician updates what the alias ultimately resolves to (or updates the target host’s A/AAAA record), and clients continue using the same familiar application URL/name―minimizing disruption and avoiding the need to reconfigure endpoints across devices.
The other record types are not designed for this purpose. TXT records store text-based information (often verification or policy data). SPF and DKIM are email authentication-related mechanisms (typically implemented via TXT records) used to validate authorized mail senders and message integrity―not application server migration. Because the goal is maintaining a stable name for a service while the underlying host changes, CNAME is the correct record type.
D
Explanation:
To ensure seamless connectivity during (and after) migrating an application server, the best DNS approach in CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) terms is to use a CNAME (Canonical Name) record, which creates an alias from one hostname to another. Instead of users connecting directly to a server’s changing hostname, they connect to a consistent service name (for example, app.company.com). That name can be configured as a CNAME pointing to the current host (such as server1.company.com). When the application is moved to a new server, the technician updates what the alias ultimately resolves to (or updates the target host’s A/AAAA record), and clients continue using the same familiar application URL/name―minimizing disruption and avoiding the need to reconfigure endpoints across devices.
The other record types are not designed for this purpose. TXT records store text-based information (often verification or policy data). SPF and DKIM are email authentication-related mechanisms (typically implemented via TXT records) used to validate authorized mail senders and message integrity―not application server migration. Because the goal is maintaining a stable name for a service while the underlying host changes, CNAME is the correct record type.
Question #32
Which of the following is an advantage of using the 2.4 GHz wireless frequency?
- A . Communication between devices without external power
- B . Security for connections in close proximity
- C . Minimized structural interference
- D . Increased channel options
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract (Aligned With CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Study Guide)
The CompTIA A+ wireless networking section describes key differences between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz Wi-Fi frequencies.
C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract (Aligned With CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Study Guide)
The CompTIA A+ wireless networking section describes key differences between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz Wi-Fi frequencies.
Question #33
A user reports cursor issues on a company laptop. Technician finds a bulge under the trackpad.
Which component should be replaced first?
- A . Motherboard
- B . Heat sink
- C . Battery
- D . Trackpad
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A physical bulge under the trackpad is a classic CompTIA-identified symptom of a swollen lithium-ion battery. As batteries degrade, internal gas buildup expands the casing, pushing upward on the laptop chassis―often distorting the trackpad, keyboard, or bottom shell. This can cause cursor issues, clicking problems, and safety hazards.
Replacing the battery first is essential because swollen batteries can rupture, leak, or ignite. Only after the battery is removed and replaced should the technician evaluate whether the trackpad suffered permanent damage.
Replacing the trackpad (D) without addressing the battery fails to correct the root cause. The motherboard (A) and heat sink (B) are unrelated to the physical bulge.
Thus, the correct first step is replacing the battery.
C
Explanation:
A physical bulge under the trackpad is a classic CompTIA-identified symptom of a swollen lithium-ion battery. As batteries degrade, internal gas buildup expands the casing, pushing upward on the laptop chassis―often distorting the trackpad, keyboard, or bottom shell. This can cause cursor issues, clicking problems, and safety hazards.
Replacing the battery first is essential because swollen batteries can rupture, leak, or ignite. Only after the battery is removed and replaced should the technician evaluate whether the trackpad suffered permanent damage.
Replacing the trackpad (D) without addressing the battery fails to correct the root cause. The motherboard (A) and heat sink (B) are unrelated to the physical bulge.
Thus, the correct first step is replacing the battery.
Question #34
A technician needs to move a workstation to a different logical network segment.
Which of the following technologies should the technician use?
- A . DHCP
- B . VLAN
- C . DNS
- D . VPN
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
AVLAN (Virtual LAN) is used to logically segment a network without requiring physical separation. It enables grouping devices based on function or department regardless of their physical location.
Option A (DHCP): Assigns IP addresses dynamically but doesn’t create network segments.
Option C (DNS): Resolves domain names to IP addresses, not used for network segmentation.
Option D (VPN): Provides secure remote access but does not relate to logical segmentation within a local network.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective
Reference: Objective 2.3: Explain common logical networking concepts.
B
Explanation:
AVLAN (Virtual LAN) is used to logically segment a network without requiring physical separation. It enables grouping devices based on function or department regardless of their physical location.
Option A (DHCP): Assigns IP addresses dynamically but doesn’t create network segments.
Option C (DNS): Resolves domain names to IP addresses, not used for network segmentation.
Option D (VPN): Provides secure remote access but does not relate to logical segmentation within a local network.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective
Reference: Objective 2.3: Explain common logical networking concepts.
Question #35
While reviewing options in the BIOS/UEFI settings page to fix a laptop issue, a support technician notices an option to clear existing TPM keys.
Which of the following would most likely happen if the TPM is cleared?
- A . Encrypted hard drives would probably not be accessible.
- B . All security certificates would need to be reinstalled from trusted roots.
- C . The device would need to be reenrolled in the MDM platform
- D . The laptop would need to be registered to the domain as a new client.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware-based security feature used to store cryptographic keys, such as those used for encryption, authentication, or device identification. It plays a critical role in ensuring secure operations for encrypted drives, BitLocker, and secure boot processes. Clearing TPM keys involves wiping all stored cryptographic data, which can lead to several consequences depending on what the TPM was being used for. Let’s break it down:
Correct Answer
A
Explanation:
The Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware-based security feature used to store cryptographic keys, such as those used for encryption, authentication, or device identification. It plays a critical role in ensuring secure operations for encrypted drives, BitLocker, and secure boot processes. Clearing TPM keys involves wiping all stored cryptographic data, which can lead to several consequences depending on what the TPM was being used for. Let’s break it down:
Correct Answer
Question #36
Which of the following cloud delivery models should an organization choose when it requires ownership of all physical hardware?
- A . Hybrid cloud
- B . Private cloud
- C . Public cloud
- D . IaaS
- E . PaaS
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A private cloud is the best choice when an organization requires ownership and control of all physical hardware. In CompTIA A+ terms, a private cloud is a cloud deployment model where the cloud infrastructure is dedicated to a single organization and can be implemented on-premises (or hosted for that organization only). If the requirement explicitly states the organization must own the servers, storage, and network equipment, that aligns with a private cloud built and maintained using the organization’s own datacenter resources. This provides greater control over security, compliance, customization, and data governance compared with shared models.
A public cloud is owned and operated by a third-party provider, so the organization does not own the underlying hardware. A hybrid cloud combines private and public components; since part of it relies on provider-owned infrastructure, it does not meet the requirement of owning all physical hardware. IaaS and PaaS are cloud service models (what is consumed), not deployment/delivery models (how it is deployed), and they commonly run on provider-owned hardware as well. Therefore, Private cloud is the correct answer.
B
Explanation:
A private cloud is the best choice when an organization requires ownership and control of all physical hardware. In CompTIA A+ terms, a private cloud is a cloud deployment model where the cloud infrastructure is dedicated to a single organization and can be implemented on-premises (or hosted for that organization only). If the requirement explicitly states the organization must own the servers, storage, and network equipment, that aligns with a private cloud built and maintained using the organization’s own datacenter resources. This provides greater control over security, compliance, customization, and data governance compared with shared models.
A public cloud is owned and operated by a third-party provider, so the organization does not own the underlying hardware. A hybrid cloud combines private and public components; since part of it relies on provider-owned infrastructure, it does not meet the requirement of owning all physical hardware. IaaS and PaaS are cloud service models (what is consumed), not deployment/delivery models (how it is deployed), and they commonly run on provider-owned hardware as well. Therefore, Private cloud is the correct answer.
Question #37
A customer reports a problem connecting to network resources. After asking open-ended questions, the technician determines the issue likely exists on the remote server.
Which of the following should the technician do next?
- A . Document the findings.
- B . Test the theory
- C . Gather information
- D . Establish a plan of action
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
After determining the issue is likely on the remote server, the technician should test the theory to confirm the root cause before proceeding.
Why Not A (Document the findings): Documentation comes after confirming the issue.
Why Not C (Gather information): Information gathering is already completed.
Why Not D (Establish a plan of action): This is done after confirming the issue.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 3.1, troubleshooting methodology.
B
Explanation:
After determining the issue is likely on the remote server, the technician should test the theory to confirm the root cause before proceeding.
Why Not A (Document the findings): Documentation comes after confirming the issue.
Why Not C (Gather information): Information gathering is already completed.
Why Not D (Establish a plan of action): This is done after confirming the issue.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 3.1, troubleshooting methodology.
Question #37
A customer reports a problem connecting to network resources. After asking open-ended questions, the technician determines the issue likely exists on the remote server.
Which of the following should the technician do next?
- A . Document the findings.
- B . Test the theory
- C . Gather information
- D . Establish a plan of action
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
After determining the issue is likely on the remote server, the technician should test the theory to confirm the root cause before proceeding.
Why Not A (Document the findings): Documentation comes after confirming the issue.
Why Not C (Gather information): Information gathering is already completed.
Why Not D (Establish a plan of action): This is done after confirming the issue.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 3.1, troubleshooting methodology.
B
Explanation:
After determining the issue is likely on the remote server, the technician should test the theory to confirm the root cause before proceeding.
Why Not A (Document the findings): Documentation comes after confirming the issue.
Why Not C (Gather information): Information gathering is already completed.
Why Not D (Establish a plan of action): This is done after confirming the issue.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 3.1, troubleshooting methodology.
Question #39
A company wants to get the fastest network speeds possible between nearby locations.
If all technologies are available, which of the following connection types should the company use?
- A . Fiber
- B . DSL
- C . Satellite
- D . Coaxial
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Fiber is the best option when the goal is the fastest possible network speeds between nearby locations. In CompTIA A+ Core 1 networking, fiber-optic cabling (single-mode or multimode) provides the highest bandwidth capacity and supports very high data rates over longer distances compared with copper media. Fiber is also highly resistant to electromagnetic interference (EMI) because it transmits data as light rather than electrical signals, which improves reliability and signal quality―especially in environments with motors, fluorescent lighting, or other sources of interference. For nearby locations (such as buildings on the same campus), fiber is commonly used for backbone links and uplinks between switches because it delivers excellent throughput and can scale to higher speeds as equipment is upgraded.
DSL is limited by telephone-line quality and distance from the provider’s equipment, and it is typically much slower than fiber. Satellite has higher latency and is not chosen when maximum speed and low delay are required. Coaxial can support broadband and some high-speed links, but it generally offers less bandwidth, more susceptibility to noise than fiber, and is not the top choice for highest-speed interconnection when fiber is available.
A
Explanation:
Fiber is the best option when the goal is the fastest possible network speeds between nearby locations. In CompTIA A+ Core 1 networking, fiber-optic cabling (single-mode or multimode) provides the highest bandwidth capacity and supports very high data rates over longer distances compared with copper media. Fiber is also highly resistant to electromagnetic interference (EMI) because it transmits data as light rather than electrical signals, which improves reliability and signal quality―especially in environments with motors, fluorescent lighting, or other sources of interference. For nearby locations (such as buildings on the same campus), fiber is commonly used for backbone links and uplinks between switches because it delivers excellent throughput and can scale to higher speeds as equipment is upgraded.
DSL is limited by telephone-line quality and distance from the provider’s equipment, and it is typically much slower than fiber. Satellite has higher latency and is not chosen when maximum speed and low delay are required. Coaxial can support broadband and some high-speed links, but it generally offers less bandwidth, more susceptibility to noise than fiber, and is not the top choice for highest-speed interconnection when fiber is available.
Question #40
A user is unable to access secure applications on their tablet when working from home a couple days per week, but the applications work when in the office.
Which of the following services most likely needs to be reconfigured to allow for remote work?
- A . Global Positioning System
- B . Mobile device management
- C . Wi-Fi Protected Access
- D . Near-field communication
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Mobile Device Management (MDM) software often controls access to corporate resources based onlocation, network, or VPN status. If the MDM is not configured to allow access from outside the office or via home networks, the apps may be blocked. This is the most probable cause if apps work only on-premises.
Option A: GPS is used for location services, not access control.
Option C: WPA is a Wi-Fi security protocol, not related to access restrictions.
Option D: NFC enables close-range communication irrelevant to app access.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective
Reference: Objective 1.6: Given a scenario, configure basic mobile device network connectivity and application support.
B
Explanation:
Mobile Device Management (MDM) software often controls access to corporate resources based onlocation, network, or VPN status. If the MDM is not configured to allow access from outside the office or via home networks, the apps may be blocked. This is the most probable cause if apps work only on-premises.
Option A: GPS is used for location services, not access control.
Option C: WPA is a Wi-Fi security protocol, not related to access restrictions.
Option D: NFC enables close-range communication irrelevant to app access.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective
Reference: Objective 1.6: Given a scenario, configure basic mobile device network connectivity and application support.