Practice Free 220-1201 Exam Online Questions
Question #41
Employees are concerned about sensitive data being printed on a shared multifunction printer located in a high-traffic hallway.
Which of the following should a technician do to address this concern?
- A . Set up a PIN for user authentication at the printer
- B . Relocate the printer to an unused office space
- C . Configure printing of sensitive data through a specific tray
- D . Schedule print jobs to be released at certain times
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
PIN printing (also known as secure printing) ensures that documents are held in a queue until the authorized user enters a PIN directly at the printer. This prevents unauthorized viewing of confidential documents.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 Official Study Guide, Section: Printer Security Secure printing with PIN authentication ensures only the document owner can release sensitive print jobs.
A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
PIN printing (also known as secure printing) ensures that documents are held in a queue until the authorized user enters a PIN directly at the printer. This prevents unauthorized viewing of confidential documents.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 Official Study Guide, Section: Printer Security Secure printing with PIN authentication ensures only the document owner can release sensitive print jobs.
Question #42
A user is setting up a gaming PC with multiple GPUs to play highly advanced games. The user’s primary concern is that the power supply is sufficient to support these tasks while allowing for future upgrades.
Which of the following power supply configurations should the user select?
- A . Redundant
- B . Non-modular
- C . Low wattage
- D . Multiple-rail
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
For a gaming PC with multiple GPUs, the power supply must safely deliver high current on the 12V rails, since GPUs and CPUs draw most of their power from 12V. A multiple-rail power supply divides the 12V output into separate rails protected by overcurrent protection (OCP). This configuration helps prevent a single rail from being overloaded and can provide safer distribution when several high-draw components (multiple GPUs, high-end CPU) are installed. From a CompTIA A+ Core 1 perspective, selecting PSU characteristics that match system load and expansion needs is key, and multi-rail designs are directly related to supporting multiple high-power devices with better protection controls.
The other options do not meet the goal. Redundant PSUs are typically used in servers for uptime, not consumer gaming builds, and they don’t inherently address GPU power distribution. Non-modular only affects cable management and airflow, not power capability or scalability. Low wattage directly conflicts with the requirement for multi-GPU performance and future upgrades. Therefore, the best choice given is multiple-rail.
D
Explanation:
For a gaming PC with multiple GPUs, the power supply must safely deliver high current on the 12V rails, since GPUs and CPUs draw most of their power from 12V. A multiple-rail power supply divides the 12V output into separate rails protected by overcurrent protection (OCP). This configuration helps prevent a single rail from being overloaded and can provide safer distribution when several high-draw components (multiple GPUs, high-end CPU) are installed. From a CompTIA A+ Core 1 perspective, selecting PSU characteristics that match system load and expansion needs is key, and multi-rail designs are directly related to supporting multiple high-power devices with better protection controls.
The other options do not meet the goal. Redundant PSUs are typically used in servers for uptime, not consumer gaming builds, and they don’t inherently address GPU power distribution. Non-modular only affects cable management and airflow, not power capability or scalability. Low wattage directly conflicts with the requirement for multi-GPU performance and future upgrades. Therefore, the best choice given is multiple-rail.
Question #43
A user is having trouble with the location services on their smartphone. Location-based applications show incorrect positions when the user is traveling. This issue affects the user’s ability to navigate and use location-dependent applications.
Which of the following is the best way to resolve this issue?
- A . Downloading a third-party mapping application
- B . Resetting the network settings
- C . Enabling Wi-Fi to assist GPS
- D . Restarting the smartphone
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Wi-Fi assistance in mobile devices helps improve location accuracy by using nearby wireless networks to triangulate the device’s position, even when GPS signals are weak (like indoors or in dense areas).
Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives C Domain 1.0 Mobile Devices C Objective 1.6: Troubleshoot common issues with mobile devices.
C
Explanation:
Wi-Fi assistance in mobile devices helps improve location accuracy by using nearby wireless networks to triangulate the device’s position, even when GPS signals are weak (like indoors or in dense areas).
Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives C Domain 1.0 Mobile Devices C Objective 1.6: Troubleshoot common issues with mobile devices.
Question #44
Which of the following is a characteristic of a Type 1 hypervisor?
- A . Host OS required
- B . Bare-metal server installation
- C . Lightweight OS
- D . Local configuration options
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
According to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) virtualization objectives, a Type 1 hypervisor is known as a bare-metal hypervisor because it installs directly onto the physical hardware of a system rather than running on top of a traditional operating system. This architecture allows the hypervisor to manage hardware resources―such as CPU, memory, storage, and networking―without the overhead of a host operating system. Because of this direct interaction with the hardware, Type 1 hypervisors typically provide higher performance, better scalability, and improved stability compared to Type 2 hypervisors.
Examples of Type 1 hypervisors include VMware ESXi, Microsoft Hyper-V (bare-metal deployment), and Citrix XenServer. These hypervisors are commonly used in enterprise data centers, cloud infrastructure, and large virtualization environments where multiple virtual machines must run efficiently on a single physical server. ️
Option A (Host OS required) describes a Type 2 hypervisor, such as VMware Workstation or Oracle VirtualBox, which runs on top of an existing operating system.
Option C (Lightweight OS) may describe some hypervisor environments but is not the defining characteristic.
Option D (Local configuration options) is also not specific to Type 1 hypervisors.
Therefore, the key characteristic that defines a Type 1 hypervisor is that it performs a bare-metal server installation directly on the hardware
B
Explanation:
According to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) virtualization objectives, a Type 1 hypervisor is known as a bare-metal hypervisor because it installs directly onto the physical hardware of a system rather than running on top of a traditional operating system. This architecture allows the hypervisor to manage hardware resources―such as CPU, memory, storage, and networking―without the overhead of a host operating system. Because of this direct interaction with the hardware, Type 1 hypervisors typically provide higher performance, better scalability, and improved stability compared to Type 2 hypervisors.
Examples of Type 1 hypervisors include VMware ESXi, Microsoft Hyper-V (bare-metal deployment), and Citrix XenServer. These hypervisors are commonly used in enterprise data centers, cloud infrastructure, and large virtualization environments where multiple virtual machines must run efficiently on a single physical server. ️
Option A (Host OS required) describes a Type 2 hypervisor, such as VMware Workstation or Oracle VirtualBox, which runs on top of an existing operating system.
Option C (Lightweight OS) may describe some hypervisor environments but is not the defining characteristic.
Option D (Local configuration options) is also not specific to Type 1 hypervisors.
Therefore, the key characteristic that defines a Type 1 hypervisor is that it performs a bare-metal server installation directly on the hardware
Question #45
A company is installing a new shared printer for all employees. Some managers need to print sensitive HR material, and the company does not want to purchase separate printers.
Which of the following should the company implement?
- A . Audit logging
- B . Secure printing
- C . Wired connectivity
- D . Duplex settings
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (100C150+ words):
Secure printing ensures that print jobs are not immediately output to the tray but instead held in a secure queue. The user must enter a PIN, password, or badge authentication directly at the printer to release the job. CompTIA A+ emphasizes secure printing as the correct method for environments where sensitive information such as HR files, performance reviews, or confidential reports must not be viewed by unauthorized individuals.
Audit logging tracks usage but does not protect documents from being seen on the printer tray.
Wired connectivity has no relation to security or confidentiality. Duplex is simply a printing mode.
Secure printing is widely used in corporate environments so shared devices can remain shared without compromising sensitive data. The A+ curriculum describes this as a security control that ensures confidentiality in shared-print environments, making Secure Printing the proper solution.
B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (100C150+ words):
Secure printing ensures that print jobs are not immediately output to the tray but instead held in a secure queue. The user must enter a PIN, password, or badge authentication directly at the printer to release the job. CompTIA A+ emphasizes secure printing as the correct method for environments where sensitive information such as HR files, performance reviews, or confidential reports must not be viewed by unauthorized individuals.
Audit logging tracks usage but does not protect documents from being seen on the printer tray.
Wired connectivity has no relation to security or confidentiality. Duplex is simply a printing mode.
Secure printing is widely used in corporate environments so shared devices can remain shared without compromising sensitive data. The A+ curriculum describes this as a security control that ensures confidentiality in shared-print environments, making Secure Printing the proper solution.
Question #46
A user keeps getting an error message when trying to print a letter. The printer is normally used to print cards and invitations. The user tries printing from a different computer, but the issue persists.
Which of the following should the user do to resolve the issue?
- A . Print fewer pages.
- B . Print on card stock
- C . Replace the rollers.
- D . Change the paper tray setting.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
If a printer is set to use a special tray (for cards/invitations) but a different type of print job is attempted (like a letter), a paper tray setting mismatch can cause errors. Changing the tray setting to match the print media resolves the issue.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.3 C Troubleshooting printers:
“If print jobs fail when media type changes, verify and adjust the paper tray settings to match the required output.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Printer Troubleshooting CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.3
D
Explanation:
If a printer is set to use a special tray (for cards/invitations) but a different type of print job is attempted (like a letter), a paper tray setting mismatch can cause errors. Changing the tray setting to match the print media resolves the issue.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.3 C Troubleshooting printers:
“If print jobs fail when media type changes, verify and adjust the paper tray settings to match the required output.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Printer Troubleshooting CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.3
Question #47
A company’s directory services server is located on premises.
Which of the following best describes the directory services infrastructure?
- A . Hybrid cloud
- B . Private cloud
- C . Public cloud
- D . Community cloud
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
In CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) cloud concepts, the key differentiator between cloud deployment models is where the service is hosted and who owns/uses the underlying infrastructure. If a company’s directory services server (for example, a domain controller providing authentication/authorization and centralized identity management) is located on premises, that points to infrastructure that is owned and operated by the organization for its own internal use. This aligns best with a private cloud model, which is defined as cloud resources dedicated to a single organization and can be implemented on-premises (internally hosted) or in a dedicated off-site environment.
It is not a public cloud because public cloud services are hosted by a third-party provider and shared across multiple customers. It is not hybrid cloud because hybrid requires a mix of on-prem resources and public cloud resources working together (the question only specifies on-prem). It is not community cloud because that involves shared infrastructure among multiple organizations with common needs.
B
Explanation:
In CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) cloud concepts, the key differentiator between cloud deployment models is where the service is hosted and who owns/uses the underlying infrastructure. If a company’s directory services server (for example, a domain controller providing authentication/authorization and centralized identity management) is located on premises, that points to infrastructure that is owned and operated by the organization for its own internal use. This aligns best with a private cloud model, which is defined as cloud resources dedicated to a single organization and can be implemented on-premises (internally hosted) or in a dedicated off-site environment.
It is not a public cloud because public cloud services are hosted by a third-party provider and shared across multiple customers. It is not hybrid cloud because hybrid requires a mix of on-prem resources and public cloud resources working together (the question only specifies on-prem). It is not community cloud because that involves shared infrastructure among multiple organizations with common needs.
Question #48
A technician has built a new computer. On the initial startup, the computer passes POST but will not turn on the operating system.
Which of the following components has failed?
- A . Audio card
- B . CPU
- C . Power supply
- D . HDD
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
When a newly built computer successfully passes POST, it indicates that the CPU, RAM, motherboard, video output, and other essential components are functioning at a hardware level. POST will typically fail or display error codes if there are problems with the CPU, RAM, GPU, or power delivery. Therefore, the fact that POST succeeds allows us to eliminate those components from suspicion.
The issue arises after POST, when the system attempts to load an operating system. For the OS to load, the BIOS/UEFI must detect a working storage device―such as an HDD, SSD, or NVMe drive― containing a bootable OS. If the computer cannot locate or read the drive, the system will halt at a boot error, such as “No boot device found,” “Insert boot media,” or similar messages. This is consistent with a failed or improperly connected HDD.
A failed HDD prevents access to boot files, even though the rest of the system hardware functions normally. Audio cards are irrelevant to booting. A failed CPU would cause a POST failure, not an OS loading issue. A faulty power supply would affect system stability during POST, not specifically OS boot failure unless the system is not powering at all.
Thus, the failed component is the HDD.
D
Explanation:
When a newly built computer successfully passes POST, it indicates that the CPU, RAM, motherboard, video output, and other essential components are functioning at a hardware level. POST will typically fail or display error codes if there are problems with the CPU, RAM, GPU, or power delivery. Therefore, the fact that POST succeeds allows us to eliminate those components from suspicion.
The issue arises after POST, when the system attempts to load an operating system. For the OS to load, the BIOS/UEFI must detect a working storage device―such as an HDD, SSD, or NVMe drive― containing a bootable OS. If the computer cannot locate or read the drive, the system will halt at a boot error, such as “No boot device found,” “Insert boot media,” or similar messages. This is consistent with a failed or improperly connected HDD.
A failed HDD prevents access to boot files, even though the rest of the system hardware functions normally. Audio cards are irrelevant to booting. A failed CPU would cause a POST failure, not an OS loading issue. A faulty power supply would affect system stability during POST, not specifically OS boot failure unless the system is not powering at all.
Thus, the failed component is the HDD.
Question #49
Which of the following DNS record types is used to direct email to a mail server?
- A . CNAME
- B . SRV
- C . MX
- D . SOA
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
An MX (Mail Exchange) record specifies the mail server responsible for receiving email for a domain.
Why Not A (CNAME): CNAME is used for domain aliasing, not for email delivery.
Why Not B (SRV): SRV records are used to locate specific services, not mail servers.
Why Not D (SOA): SOA records provide domain information but do not handle email.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, DNS record types.
C
Explanation:
An MX (Mail Exchange) record specifies the mail server responsible for receiving email for a domain.
Why Not A (CNAME): CNAME is used for domain aliasing, not for email delivery.
Why Not B (SRV): SRV records are used to locate specific services, not mail servers.
Why Not D (SOA): SOA records provide domain information but do not handle email.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, DNS record types.
Question #50
A user receives an error when installing a new email app on their phone. Technician verifies OS is updated and app is supported.
What should the technician check next?
- A . Storage
- B . Battery health
- C . SIM card
- D . Processor
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
When an application fails to install on a smartphone despite being supported by the OS and device type, CompTIA A+ stresses that the most common cause is insufficient storage. Mobile devices require not only space for the app itself but also additional temporary space for the installation process, cached data, and updates. If internal storage is nearly full, the app store will display installation errors―even if the OS and hardware meet requirements.
Battery health has no impact on app installation. A SIM card is unrelated to installing local applications―it only affects cellular connectivity. Processor architecture issues would have been caught during compatibility checking, but the technician already verified the device supports the application.
Therefore, after confirming compatibility, the next logical step is to check available storage space. If storage is low, deleting unused apps, clearing cached data, or transferring media to cloud storage or an SD card typically resolves the installation issue.
Thus, Option A: Storage is the correct answer.
A
Explanation:
When an application fails to install on a smartphone despite being supported by the OS and device type, CompTIA A+ stresses that the most common cause is insufficient storage. Mobile devices require not only space for the app itself but also additional temporary space for the installation process, cached data, and updates. If internal storage is nearly full, the app store will display installation errors―even if the OS and hardware meet requirements.
Battery health has no impact on app installation. A SIM card is unrelated to installing local applications―it only affects cellular connectivity. Processor architecture issues would have been caught during compatibility checking, but the technician already verified the device supports the application.
Therefore, after confirming compatibility, the next logical step is to check available storage space. If storage is low, deleting unused apps, clearing cached data, or transferring media to cloud storage or an SD card typically resolves the installation issue.
Thus, Option A: Storage is the correct answer.