Practice Free 220-1201 Exam Online Questions
Which connector is used to uplink a new ISP cable modem to its wall jack?
- A . F-type
- B . LC
- C . RJ45
- D . Lightning
A
Explanation:
Cable modems supplied by ISPs connect to the coaxial wall outlet using an F-type connector. CompTIA A+ specifies that F-type connectors are threaded coaxial connectors used in broadband cable internet, cable TV, and some satellite systems. They attach to RG-6 or RG-59 coaxial cable and provide a secure, shielded connection to the cable provider’s infrastructure.
The cable modem requires this coaxial uplink to receive downstream and upstream signals from the ISP before converting them into Ethernet on the LAN side.
LC (B) is for fiber optic connectors, not coaxial. RJ45 (C) is an Ethernet connector and is used on the LAN side of the modem―not on the wall uplink. Lightning (D) is an Apple connector and irrelevant to networking hardware.
Thus, the correct connector for the ISP cable modem uplink is F-type.
When installing a network printer, a technician needs to ensure the printer is available after a network is restarted.
Which of the following should the technician set up on the printer to meet this requirement?
- A . Static IP address
- B . Private address
- C . Wi-Fi on the printer
- D . Dynamic addressing
A
Explanation:
Assigning astatic IP address to a network printer ensures it always retains the same address, allowing users and print servers to consistently reach it even after a reboot or network refresh.
Option B (Private address): Refers to address ranges (e.g., 192.168.x.x) doesn’t guarantee address persistence.
Option C (Wi-Fi): Is a connection method, not a method of IP assignment.
Option D (Dynamic addressing): Via DHCP, which can change over time unless reservations are made (less reliable).
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective
Reference: Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, install and configure printers.
A technician receives a S.M.A.R.T. error on a PC. When the technician presses the Esc key, the PC continues to turn on without any further issues.
Which of the following should the technician do next?
- A . Replace the HDD.
- B . Update the PC’s BIOS.
- C . Close the ticket.
- D . Change the NIC.
A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step
S.M.A.R.T. (Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology):
S.M.A.R.T. is a monitoring system integrated into modern HDDs and SSDs that detects and reports on various indicators of drive health and reliability.
A S.M.A.R.T. error indicates that the drive is showing signs of impending failure, even if the PC continues to boot and work normally for the time being.
Next Steps:
The appropriate action is to replace the hard drive (HDD) because a S.M.A.R.T. error is an early warning of possible hardware failure. Ignoring the warning could result in data loss if the drive fails completely.
The technician should also back up the user’s data immediately to avoid losing critical information.
Incorrect Options:
B. Update the PC’s BIOS: While keeping the BIOS updated is a good practice, it does not address the S.M.A.R.T. error, which is specific to the HDD.
C. Close the ticket: Closing the ticket without resolving the issue would be improper, as the S.M.A.R.T. error is a hardware problem that needs to be addressed to prevent future data loss or downtime.
D. Change the NIC: The NIC (Network Interface Card) is unrelated to the storage system and would not resolve a S.M.A.R.T. error.
Key Takeaway:
A S.M.A.R.T. error is a critical indicator of HDD health issues, and the drive should be replaced as soon as possible. Backing up data is also essential.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives (220-1201), Domain 5.1 C Troubleshooting hard drives and RAID arrays.
A user purchases a new mobile phone and tries to connect it to the corporate communications and email applications without success.
Which of the following should a technician do to allow the phone to connect?
- A . Configure biometric security settings.
- B . Turn on LTE hotspot connectivity.
- C . Enroll the device in the MDM software.
- D . Complete the company’s BYOD training process.
C
Explanation:
Mobile Device Management (MDM) enrollment ensures that mobile devices meet security and access policies required by the corporate network. By enrolling the device in MDM, the technician can apply necessary configurations and enable corporate app access.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives C Domain 1.0 Mobile Devices C Objective 1.5: Compare and contrast methods for securing mobile devices.
A company implements a new policy that prohibits users from installing unapproved applications on corporate tablets.
Which of the following should the technician use to enforce this policy?
- A . MDM
- B . ACL
- C . DRM
- D . PAM
A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract (Aligned With CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Official Study Guide)
Mobile Device Management (MDM) is the technology used by organizations to centrally configure, secure, and control mobile devices such as smartphones and tablets.
The CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) objectives specify that MDM solutions allow administrators to implement and enforce security and usage policies, including:
Application control (whitelisting and blacklisting)
Restricting installation of unapproved applications
Enforcing corporate compliance requirements
Remotely managing mobile device configurations
This directly applies to the scenario: the company wants to prevent users from installing unapproved apps on corporate tablets.
MDM enforces this through:
App whitelisting → only approved apps can be installed
App blacklisting → specific apps are blocked
Locked-down app stores → only corporate-approved app stores or catalogs
This is exactly the function MDM is designed for in enterprise mobile security and management.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
B. ACL (Access Control List)
ACLs control network or file-system access, such as allowing or denying IP addresses, ports, or file permissions.
They cannot control app installation behavior on mobile devices.
C. DRM (Digital Rights Management)
DRM protects digital content from unauthorized copying or distribution.
It does not restrict which applications can be installed on a mobile device.
D. PAM (Privileged Access Management)
PAM controls administrative or privileged accounts in enterprise environments.
It is unrelated to app-installation restrictions on tablets.
A user wants to print files from an overseas office using a shared network folder. The user’s laptop has no public-facing internet connectivity.
Which of the following can be used to print from the shared network folder?
- A . ADF
- B . USB
- C . PCL
- D . SMB
D
Explanation:
SMB (Server Message Block) is a protocol used to access files and printers over a network, including across shared network folders. It enables the user to access and print files stored remotely on a shared directory.
Option A (ADF): Automatic Document Feeder hardware, not a network protocol.
Option B (USB): Used for direct physical connections, not for printing over networks.
Option C (PCL): Printer Command Language relates to printer drivers, not file sharing or access.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective
Reference: Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, install and configure printers.
A computer training institute needs to implement multiple VLANs that must:
• Connect to each other with minimum hardware
• Communicate traffic at wire speed
Which of the following is the most suitable?
- A . Web application firewall
- B . DDoS appliance
- C . Layer 3 switch
- D . Router
C
Explanation:
A Layer 3 switch is the optimal solution when multiple VLANs must intercommunicate while maintaining high performance and minimal hardware complexity. CompTIA A+ explains that Layer 3 switches combine the capabilities of switching (Layer 2) and routing (Layer 3), allowing VLAN traffic to be routed internally at wire speed, without the latency typically associated with traditional routers.
Layer 3 switches use hardware-based routing, meaning they forward inter-VLAN traffic using ASICs (Application-Specific Integrated Circuits). This allows them to achieve extremely fast throughput, ideal for environments like computer training institutes where multiple VLANs may be used for student labs, instructor networks, and administrative traffic.
A router (D) can route between VLANs but introduces more latency due to software-based routing and typically requires additional equipment. A Web application firewall (A) and DDoS appliance (B) are security devices unrelated to internal VLAN communication.
Because the institute requires minimal hardware and high-speed inter-VLAN communication, the Layer 3 switch is the only CompTIA-supported device that meets both requirements simultaneously.
An end user’s domain password expires while they are working from home. The end user tries to reset the password using Ctrl+Alt+Delete and then receives the following message:
Configuration information could not be read from the domain controller, either because the machine is unavailable or because access is denied.
Which of the following will resolve this issue?
- A . Restart the computer.
- B . Connect to the VPN.
- C . Reset the account in Active Directory.
- D . Join the Wi-Fi network.
B
Explanation:
To change a domain password from a remote location, the system must communicate with the domain controller. Since the user is working from home, they need to connect to the corporate VPN to establish that secure connection. Without it, the password change cannot be authenticated.
Option A: Restarting will not resolve the lack of connection to the domain controller.
Option C: Resetting the password in AD could help, but doesn’t let the user reset it themselves.
Option D: The user may already be on Wi-Fi; the issue is with connecting to the corporate network, not local.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective
Reference: Objective 1.6: Given a scenario, configure basic mobile device network connectivity and application support.
A technician needs to prepare a conference room for a meeting. The technician connects the laptop to the LCD projector and audio system, and then verifies the connectivity of each device. The
meeting begins, but the visual presentation suddenly cuts off 30 minutes later. The audio continues to play without interruption. The technician brings in a backup laptop and connects it to the projector. The meeting continues without issue for 15 minutes until the presentation suddenly cuts off again.
Which of the following should the technician do to resolve this issue?
- A . Check the laptop’s audio output
- B . Verify the input source
- C . Examine the display for burn-in
- D . Inspect the cables for damage
- E . Clean or replace the filter
E
Explanation:
Overheating is a common cause of projectors shutting down after extended use. A clogged air filter can cause overheating, resulting in intermittent shutdowns.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.1 C Troubleshooting displays:
“If a projector shuts down after running for a period, clean or replace the filter to prevent overheating and automatic shutdown.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Display Troubleshooting CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.1
A customer needs to install a new printer in their network. The customer reports that users had intermittent connectivity issues with previous printers.
Which of the following should the technician
configure on the new printer to prevent this issue?
- A . Gateway IP address
- B . DHCP IP address
- C . Static IP address
- D . Public IP address
C
Explanation:
Intermittent connectivity issues with network printers are commonly caused by changing IP addresses when using DHCP. Assigning a static IP address ensures that the printer is always reachable at the same IP address by client machines.
Reference: "CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide" by Quentin Docter C Chapter 4, "Printers and Multifunction Devices", page 241.