Practice Free 220-1201 Exam Online Questions
Question #61
A small business is growing and wants to scale its computing capacity. The business wants to continue using on-site equipment until it is EOL. The solution must be able to share data with the local data center.
Which of the following models should a technician suggest?
- A . Public
- B . Community
- C . Hybrid
- D . Private
- E . SaaS
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The requirements describe an environment transitioning gradually from on-site hardware to scalable cloud services. The business wishes to continue using its existing local equipment until end of life, while also expanding computing resources beyond what the on-premises infrastructure can handle. Additionally, the cloud environment must be able to share data with the internal data center.
This aligns perfectly with a hybrid cloud model, which CompTIA A+ defines as a combination of private (on-premises) and public cloud resources operating together. Hybrid cloud enables secure data sharing, workload distribution, and scaling without eliminating existing hardware investments. It allows organizations to offload high-demand processes to the cloud while maintaining sensitive data or critical services on-site.
A private cloud (D) would not allow scaling into a public provider efficiently. A public cloud (A)
replaces internal resources instead of complementing them. A community cloud (B) is shared among organizations with similar compliance requirements―not applicable here. SaaS (E) refers to hosted applications, not infrastructure scalability.
Thus, a Hybrid cloud model fulfills all stated requirements: seamless data sharing, scalable computing, and continued use of on-site equipment.
C
Explanation:
The requirements describe an environment transitioning gradually from on-site hardware to scalable cloud services. The business wishes to continue using its existing local equipment until end of life, while also expanding computing resources beyond what the on-premises infrastructure can handle. Additionally, the cloud environment must be able to share data with the internal data center.
This aligns perfectly with a hybrid cloud model, which CompTIA A+ defines as a combination of private (on-premises) and public cloud resources operating together. Hybrid cloud enables secure data sharing, workload distribution, and scaling without eliminating existing hardware investments. It allows organizations to offload high-demand processes to the cloud while maintaining sensitive data or critical services on-site.
A private cloud (D) would not allow scaling into a public provider efficiently. A public cloud (A)
replaces internal resources instead of complementing them. A community cloud (B) is shared among organizations with similar compliance requirements―not applicable here. SaaS (E) refers to hosted applications, not infrastructure scalability.
Thus, a Hybrid cloud model fulfills all stated requirements: seamless data sharing, scalable computing, and continued use of on-site equipment.
Question #62
A developer wants to protect critical data from hard drive failure. Their workstation has two hard drives.
Which RAID level should they use?
- A . RAID 0
- B . RAID 1
- C . RAID 5
- D . RAID 10
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
RAID 1, also known as disk mirroring, duplicates data identically to two drives, ensuring full redundancy if one drive fails. Because the workstation only has two drives, RAID 1 is the only RAID level that provides fault tolerance under this constraint, exactly as described in the CompTIA A+ study guide.
RAID 0 offers no redundancy, RAID 5 requires at least three drives, and RAID 10 requires at least four drives.
RAID 1 is the recommended configuration for small environments or workstations that rely on data integrity and quick recovery, matching CompTIA’s guidance for redundancy in systems with limited drive availability.
B
Explanation:
RAID 1, also known as disk mirroring, duplicates data identically to two drives, ensuring full redundancy if one drive fails. Because the workstation only has two drives, RAID 1 is the only RAID level that provides fault tolerance under this constraint, exactly as described in the CompTIA A+ study guide.
RAID 0 offers no redundancy, RAID 5 requires at least three drives, and RAID 10 requires at least four drives.
RAID 1 is the recommended configuration for small environments or workstations that rely on data integrity and quick recovery, matching CompTIA’s guidance for redundancy in systems with limited drive availability.
Question #63
A technician wants to monitor network statistics for devices communicating with one another on the local subnet.
Which of the following devices should the technician install.
- A . Managed switch
- B . Router
- C . Access point
- D . Firewall
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A managed switch provides advanced features such as traffic monitoring and VLAN configuration, allowing a technician to view network statistics for devices on the local subnet.
Why Not B (Router): A router connects different networks and directs traffic between them but does not provide detailed subnet-level statistics.
Why Not C (Access point): Access points provide wireless connectivity but lack traffic monitoring features.
Why Not D (Firewall): A firewall filters traffic but is not used for monitoring detailed statistics on a
local subnet.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, network monitoring tools.
A
Explanation:
A managed switch provides advanced features such as traffic monitoring and VLAN configuration, allowing a technician to view network statistics for devices on the local subnet.
Why Not B (Router): A router connects different networks and directs traffic between them but does not provide detailed subnet-level statistics.
Why Not C (Access point): Access points provide wireless connectivity but lack traffic monitoring features.
Why Not D (Firewall): A firewall filters traffic but is not used for monitoring detailed statistics on a
local subnet.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, network monitoring tools.
Question #64
Which of the following is a benefit of using a VLAN?
- A . It minimizes collision domains.
- B . It provides private access to cloud resources.
- C . It increases network address space.
- D . It enables secure network segmentation.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) segments a physical network into separate logical networks, enhancing security by isolating traffic.
Why Not A (Minimizes collision domains): VLANs manage broadcast domains, not collision domains.
Why Not B (Provides private access to cloud resources): VLANs operate within a local network, not cloud-specific.
Why Not C (Increases network address space): VLANs do not affect address space.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, VLAN concepts.
D
Explanation:
A VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) segments a physical network into separate logical networks, enhancing security by isolating traffic.
Why Not A (Minimizes collision domains): VLANs manage broadcast domains, not collision domains.
Why Not B (Provides private access to cloud resources): VLANs operate within a local network, not cloud-specific.
Why Not C (Increases network address space): VLANs do not affect address space.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, VLAN concepts.
Question #65
Which of the following display characteristics would be most important to ensure screen images appear the same as printed output?
- A . Color gamut
- B . Pixel density
- C . Refresh rate
- D . Resolution
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Color gamut refers to the range of colors a display can accurately reproduce. For tasks like graphic design or photo editing, ensuring the screen’s colors match the printed output is critical. Monitors with wide and accurate color gamuts (e.g., Adobe RGB) are preferred for these applications.
Option B (Pixel density): Incorrect. Pixel density affects image sharpness, not color accuracy.
Option C (Refresh rate): Incorrect. Refresh rate impacts motion smoothness but is unrelated to color matching.
Option D (Resolution): Incorrect. Resolution determines clarity and detail but does not influence color accuracy.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Objectives: 1.2 (Display types and characteristics)
A
Explanation:
Color gamut refers to the range of colors a display can accurately reproduce. For tasks like graphic design or photo editing, ensuring the screen’s colors match the printed output is critical. Monitors with wide and accurate color gamuts (e.g., Adobe RGB) are preferred for these applications.
Option B (Pixel density): Incorrect. Pixel density affects image sharpness, not color accuracy.
Option C (Refresh rate): Incorrect. Refresh rate impacts motion smoothness but is unrelated to color matching.
Option D (Resolution): Incorrect. Resolution determines clarity and detail but does not influence color accuracy.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Objectives: 1.2 (Display types and characteristics)
Question #66
A company provides cell phones to employees who travel internationally. An employee brings their phone to the help desk so the necessary equipment can be installed. However, the technician cannot install any new hardware on the phone.
Which of the following will the technician require so the phone can connect to a different provider?
- A . USB-C
- B . SD card
- C . eSIM
- D . MDM
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
An eSIM (embedded SIM) allows users to change carriers and provision new cellular service without installing any physical hardware. It is managed via software and is ideal for international travelers who need to switch providers quickly.
From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.3 C Install and configure mobile device network connectivity:
"eSIMs provide carrier flexibility by enabling remote provisioning and profile switching, making it possible to connect to different networks without a physical SIM card."
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Mobile Devices CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.3
C
Explanation:
An eSIM (embedded SIM) allows users to change carriers and provision new cellular service without installing any physical hardware. It is managed via software and is ideal for international travelers who need to switch providers quickly.
From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.3 C Install and configure mobile device network connectivity:
"eSIMs provide carrier flexibility by enabling remote provisioning and profile switching, making it possible to connect to different networks without a physical SIM card."
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Mobile Devices CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.3
Question #67
A user connects their laptop to a projector in a conference room. Once connected, the user reports the screen is smaller at the bottom than at the top. The user tries restarting the laptop and then disconnecting and reconnecting the cable to the projector.
Which of the following should a technician do to resolve the issue?
- A . Replace the HDMI cable.
- B . Power cycle the projector.
- C . Adjust the keystone
- D . Increase the resolution.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A distorted image where the screen is not symmetrical (wider at the top or bottom) is typically due to keystone distortion. Adjusting the projector’s keystone settings corrects this trapezoidal effect caused by an angled projection.
Reference: "CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide" by Quentin Docter C Chapter 3, page 152.
C
Explanation:
A distorted image where the screen is not symmetrical (wider at the top or bottom) is typically due to keystone distortion. Adjusting the projector’s keystone settings corrects this trapezoidal effect caused by an angled projection.
Reference: "CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide" by Quentin Docter C Chapter 3, page 152.
Question #68
A technician is experimenting with network configurations and has connected two laptops to an unmanaged switch. The technician configured one of the laptops with a static IP address of 192.168.1.1 and the other with a static IP address of 192.168.2.2. The laptops are not communicating with each other.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this issue?
- A . The technician needs to use a hub instead of a switch.
- B . The wireless NICs are malfunctioning.
- C . PoE interferes with intersubnet communication.
- D . The laptops do not have access to a router.
Correct Answer: D
Question #69
A user only has access to basic printer functions. A technician notices that the advanced printer features are missing.
Which of the following actions will fix this issue?
- A . Modifying the printer settings and rebooting the printer
- B . Installing the drivers from the printer’s manufacturer
- C . Restarting the OS and attempting to reprint the document
- D . Applying the OS-provided patches for the printer
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
When a printer only provides basic functionality (such as simple printing without duplexing, color management, stapling, or finishing options), this typically indicates that the system is using a generic or basic printer driver rather than the full-featured driver from the printer manufacturer. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) printing and troubleshooting objectives, advanced printer features are enabled through manufacturer-specific drivers, which expose all hardware capabilities to the operating system.
Operating systems often install default or class drivers automatically, especially when printers are connected via USB or discovered on a network. While these drivers allow basic printing, they do not include proprietary features such as high-resolution settings, tray selection, finishing units, or secure printing options. Installing the correct driver package from the printer manufacturer ensures full compatibility and unlocks advanced functionality.
Restarting the OS or modifying printer settings will not add missing features if the correct driver is not installed. OS-provided patches are designed to fix bugs or compatibility issues, not to enable vendor-specific printer capabilities.
CompTIA explicitly emphasizes verifying and installing manufacturer-recommended drivers as a key troubleshooting step when printer features are missing or limited.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide C Printer Installation, Drivers, and Troubleshooting
B
Explanation:
When a printer only provides basic functionality (such as simple printing without duplexing, color management, stapling, or finishing options), this typically indicates that the system is using a generic or basic printer driver rather than the full-featured driver from the printer manufacturer. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) printing and troubleshooting objectives, advanced printer features are enabled through manufacturer-specific drivers, which expose all hardware capabilities to the operating system.
Operating systems often install default or class drivers automatically, especially when printers are connected via USB or discovered on a network. While these drivers allow basic printing, they do not include proprietary features such as high-resolution settings, tray selection, finishing units, or secure printing options. Installing the correct driver package from the printer manufacturer ensures full compatibility and unlocks advanced functionality.
Restarting the OS or modifying printer settings will not add missing features if the correct driver is not installed. OS-provided patches are designed to fix bugs or compatibility issues, not to enable vendor-specific printer capabilities.
CompTIA explicitly emphasizes verifying and installing manufacturer-recommended drivers as a key troubleshooting step when printer features are missing or limited.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide C Printer Installation, Drivers, and Troubleshooting
Question #70
Which of the following internet connection types is primarily used for high-speed internet access in rural areas where traditional broadband services are unavailable?
- A . Fiber
- B . Satellite
- C . DSL
- D . Cable
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Satellite internet is commonly used in rural or remote locations where wired broadband options such as cable and fiber are not available and where DSL service may be limited by distance from the provider’s equipment. CompTIA A+ Core 1 emphasizes understanding internet connection types and where each is typically deployed. Satellite works by using a dish at the customer site to communicate with a satellite, which then relays traffic to a ground station connected to the internet backbone. Because it does not depend on local cable plant, telephone central office proximity, or neighborhood fiber buildouts, it can be deployed in areas with minimal infrastructure.
Fiber (A) provides very high speeds and low latency but requires extensive physical infrastructure that is often lacking in rural regions. Cable (D) also requires a local cable network buildout and is usually concentrated in more populated areas. DSL (C) uses existing telephone lines, but performance and availability depend heavily on distance from the DSL provider’s equipment, making it unreliable or unavailable in sparsely populated regions. While satellite often involves higher latency and can be affected by weather, it remains a primary option when traditional broadband services are not present.
B
Explanation:
Satellite internet is commonly used in rural or remote locations where wired broadband options such as cable and fiber are not available and where DSL service may be limited by distance from the provider’s equipment. CompTIA A+ Core 1 emphasizes understanding internet connection types and where each is typically deployed. Satellite works by using a dish at the customer site to communicate with a satellite, which then relays traffic to a ground station connected to the internet backbone. Because it does not depend on local cable plant, telephone central office proximity, or neighborhood fiber buildouts, it can be deployed in areas with minimal infrastructure.
Fiber (A) provides very high speeds and low latency but requires extensive physical infrastructure that is often lacking in rural regions. Cable (D) also requires a local cable network buildout and is usually concentrated in more populated areas. DSL (C) uses existing telephone lines, but performance and availability depend heavily on distance from the DSL provider’s equipment, making it unreliable or unavailable in sparsely populated regions. While satellite often involves higher latency and can be affected by weather, it remains a primary option when traditional broadband services are not present.