Practice Free 220-1201 Exam Online Questions
Question #121
Which of the following involves installing an application on a server so several users can run the application concurrently without the need for local installation?
- A . Client virtualization
- B . Software as a service
- C . Sandboxing
- D . Embedded software
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Client virtualization involves installing an application on a server and enabling multiple users to run the application simultaneously via virtualized sessions. This eliminates the need for individual installations on local machines.
Why Not B (Software as a Service): SaaS delivers software over the internet and does not require local installations but is managed by a third party, not the organization itself.
Why Not C (Sandboxing): Sandboxing is for isolating applications for security testing, not for concurrent user access.
Why Not D (Embedded software): Embedded software is installed on hardware devices, not shared across multiple users.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 4.2, virtualization concepts.
A
Explanation:
Client virtualization involves installing an application on a server and enabling multiple users to run the application simultaneously via virtualized sessions. This eliminates the need for individual installations on local machines.
Why Not B (Software as a Service): SaaS delivers software over the internet and does not require local installations but is managed by a third party, not the organization itself.
Why Not C (Sandboxing): Sandboxing is for isolating applications for security testing, not for concurrent user access.
Why Not D (Embedded software): Embedded software is installed on hardware devices, not shared across multiple users.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 4.2, virtualization concepts.
Question #122
A recently installed printer is incorrectly aligning printed documents.
Which of the following should the technician do first to fix this issue?
- A . Run the maintenance application.
- B . Clean the rollers
- C . Upgrade the firmware
- D . Reinstall the drivers
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A
Explanation:
Question #123
Which cloud characteristic allows local folders to contain updates made by users or other devices?
- A . Network share
- B . Synchronization
- C . Availability
- D . Metered utilization
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Cloud storage platforms―such as OneDrive, Google Drive, and Dropbox―use synchronization to ensure that files updated on one device automatically update on all connected devices. CompTIA A+ defines synchronization as a key cloud characteristic that keeps local folders and cloud-stored versions consistent, enabling seamless multi-device collaboration.
Synchronization allows users to:
Modify files offline and have them sync once online
Access identical data on laptops, desktops, and mobile devices
Ensure real-time updates across multiple users or clients
Maintain version consistency and conflict resolution
A network share (A) is local to an organization and does not automatically sync across devices. Availability (C) relates to uptime and reliability, not file updates. Metered utilization (D) refers to cloud billing models where usage is tracked, not data syncing.
Thus, synchronization is the capability that ensures local folders update dynamically whenever changes occur.
B
Explanation:
Cloud storage platforms―such as OneDrive, Google Drive, and Dropbox―use synchronization to ensure that files updated on one device automatically update on all connected devices. CompTIA A+ defines synchronization as a key cloud characteristic that keeps local folders and cloud-stored versions consistent, enabling seamless multi-device collaboration.
Synchronization allows users to:
Modify files offline and have them sync once online
Access identical data on laptops, desktops, and mobile devices
Ensure real-time updates across multiple users or clients
Maintain version consistency and conflict resolution
A network share (A) is local to an organization and does not automatically sync across devices. Availability (C) relates to uptime and reliability, not file updates. Metered utilization (D) refers to cloud billing models where usage is tracked, not data syncing.
Thus, synchronization is the capability that ensures local folders update dynamically whenever changes occur.
Question #124
A technician is building a home desktop computer. The technician wants to prioritize cable management when considering the type of power supply.
Which of the following power supply types should the technician consider?
- A . Back-up
- B . Modular
- C . Standard
- D . Redundant
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A modular power supply is the best choice when cable management is a priority. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) power supply objectives, modular PSUs allow technicians to connect only the cables that are needed for the system’s components, reducing clutter inside the case.
This improves airflow, simplifies troubleshooting, and creates a cleaner internal layout, which is especially beneficial in home-built desktop systems. Semi-modular and fully modular power supplies offer varying degrees of flexibility, but all modular designs reduce unused cables compared to standard power supplies.
A standard (non-modular) power supply has all cables permanently attached, often resulting in excess unused cables that obstruct airflow. A backup power supply refers to an uninterruptible power supply (UPS), which provides battery backup but does not improve internal cable management. A redundant power supply is typically found in enterprise servers and includes multiple PSUs for fault tolerance, not cable management.
CompTIA emphasizes modular power supplies as a best practice for clean builds and efficient system design, making this the correct answer.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide C Power Supplies, Form Factors, and Cable Management
B
Explanation:
A modular power supply is the best choice when cable management is a priority. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) power supply objectives, modular PSUs allow technicians to connect only the cables that are needed for the system’s components, reducing clutter inside the case.
This improves airflow, simplifies troubleshooting, and creates a cleaner internal layout, which is especially beneficial in home-built desktop systems. Semi-modular and fully modular power supplies offer varying degrees of flexibility, but all modular designs reduce unused cables compared to standard power supplies.
A standard (non-modular) power supply has all cables permanently attached, often resulting in excess unused cables that obstruct airflow. A backup power supply refers to an uninterruptible power supply (UPS), which provides battery backup but does not improve internal cable management. A redundant power supply is typically found in enterprise servers and includes multiple PSUs for fault tolerance, not cable management.
CompTIA emphasizes modular power supplies as a best practice for clean builds and efficient system design, making this the correct answer.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide C Power Supplies, Form Factors, and Cable Management
Question #125
Which of the following is used to verify the functionality of an Ethernet NIC?
- A . Toner probe
- B . Loopback plug
- C . Wi-Fi analyzer
- D . Punchdown tool
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A loopback plug is specifically designed to test whether a network interface card (NIC) can successfully transmit and receive signals at the physical/data-link level. For an Ethernet NIC, the loopback plug connects the transmit (TX) pins back to the receive (RX) pins on the NIC’s port (or through an adapter), creating a closed circuit. When the NIC sends data, it should immediately “see” that data returned, confirming the NIC’s port electronics and basic send/receive functionality are working. This is a direct, controlled test that helps isolate the problem: if the NIC fails the loopback test, the issue is likely the NIC/port/driver configuration rather than the cabling or network infrastructure.
The other tools don’t validate NIC function in this way: a toner probe traces and identifies cables, a Wi-Fi analyzer evaluates wireless networks (not wired Ethernet NICs), and a punch down tool terminates wires into patch panels or keystone jacks. Therefore, the best CompTIA A+ answer for verifying an Ethernet NIC’s functionality is a loopback plug.
B
Explanation:
A loopback plug is specifically designed to test whether a network interface card (NIC) can successfully transmit and receive signals at the physical/data-link level. For an Ethernet NIC, the loopback plug connects the transmit (TX) pins back to the receive (RX) pins on the NIC’s port (or through an adapter), creating a closed circuit. When the NIC sends data, it should immediately “see” that data returned, confirming the NIC’s port electronics and basic send/receive functionality are working. This is a direct, controlled test that helps isolate the problem: if the NIC fails the loopback test, the issue is likely the NIC/port/driver configuration rather than the cabling or network infrastructure.
The other tools don’t validate NIC function in this way: a toner probe traces and identifies cables, a Wi-Fi analyzer evaluates wireless networks (not wired Ethernet NICs), and a punch down tool terminates wires into patch panels or keystone jacks. Therefore, the best CompTIA A+ answer for verifying an Ethernet NIC’s functionality is a loopback plug.
Question #126
An administrator is investigating a misuse of printer resources. The administrator suspects an employee.
Which of the following will help the administrator verify the source of misuse?
- A . Secure printing
- B . Print counter
- C . Audit logs
- D . User authentication
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
To verify the source of printer misuse, the administrator needs detailed records showing who performed specific actions and when. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) printer management and security objectives, audit logs provide a historical record of printer activity, including user IDs, timestamps, document names, and print volumes. These logs allow administrators to trace printer usage back to a specific user or device, making them the most effective tool for investigating misuse.
Secure printing requires users to authenticate at the printer before jobs are released, which helps prevent unauthorized access but does not provide historical evidence of past misuse. A print counter tracks the total number of pages printed but does not identify individual users or specific print jobs. User authentication ensures that only authorized users can access the printer, but by itself it does not provide detailed usage tracking unless combined with logging.
CompTIA emphasizes audit logging as a critical component of accountability and security across systems, including printers. When investigating policy violations or misuse, audit logs are the primary source of verifiable evidence.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide C Printer Security, Monitoring, and Management
C
Explanation:
To verify the source of printer misuse, the administrator needs detailed records showing who performed specific actions and when. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) printer management and security objectives, audit logs provide a historical record of printer activity, including user IDs, timestamps, document names, and print volumes. These logs allow administrators to trace printer usage back to a specific user or device, making them the most effective tool for investigating misuse.
Secure printing requires users to authenticate at the printer before jobs are released, which helps prevent unauthorized access but does not provide historical evidence of past misuse. A print counter tracks the total number of pages printed but does not identify individual users or specific print jobs. User authentication ensures that only authorized users can access the printer, but by itself it does not provide detailed usage tracking unless combined with logging.
CompTIA emphasizes audit logging as a critical component of accountability and security across systems, including printers. When investigating policy violations or misuse, audit logs are the primary source of verifiable evidence.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide C Printer Security, Monitoring, and Management
Question #127
A user reports slow internet browsing. The technician finds high CPU and memory usage, and pop-ups occur every minute.
Which of the following should the technician do next?
- A . Escalate to the network team to check end-to-end connectivity.
- B . Download and install the latest drivers.
- C . Update the anti-malware signatures and scan the system.
- D . Check the wireless settings and validate the DHCP configuration.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
High resource usage along with frequentpop-upsare strong signs of a malware infection. The next logical step is to update anti-malware definitions and run a full scan to detect and remove threats.
Option A: Network performance is likely not the root cause local system behavior points to malware.
Option B: Drivers affect hardware functionality; they don’t resolve malware-related slowness.
Option D: DHCP issues usually cause IP conflicts or no network access, not CPU spikes or pop-ups. CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective
Reference: Objective 4.2: Given a scenario, detect, remove, and prevent malware using appropriate tools and methods.
C
Explanation:
High resource usage along with frequentpop-upsare strong signs of a malware infection. The next logical step is to update anti-malware definitions and run a full scan to detect and remove threats.
Option A: Network performance is likely not the root cause local system behavior points to malware.
Option B: Drivers affect hardware functionality; they don’t resolve malware-related slowness.
Option D: DHCP issues usually cause IP conflicts or no network access, not CPU spikes or pop-ups. CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective
Reference: Objective 4.2: Given a scenario, detect, remove, and prevent malware using appropriate tools and methods.