Practice Free 220-1201 Exam Online Questions
Question #11
An administrator is configuring a server to host several virtual machines. The administrator configures the server and is ready to begin provisioning the virtual machines.
Which of the following should the administrator utilize to complete this task?
- A . Device manager
- B . Disk management
- C . Hypervisor
- D . Virtual LAN
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
To provision and run multiple virtual machines on a physical server, the administrator must use a hypervisor. A hypervisor is the virtualization layer that creates, runs, and manages virtual machines by abstracting physical hardware resources such as CPU, RAM, storage, and network adapters into virtual resources presented to each VM. Once the server is configured with the required hardware support (such as sufficient RAM/CPU capacity and virtualization features enabled in firmware), the hypervisor is the component that enables VM creation, allocation of resources, virtual disk creation, and VM lifecycle actions like start, stop, suspend, snapshots, and virtual networking configuration.
Device Manager is used to view and manage hardware devices and drivers on an operating system, but it is not a VM provisioning tool. Disk Management can partition and format disks, which may support storage preparation, but it does not create or run VMs. A Virtual LAN is a network segmentation method at Layer 2 and may be used in VM networking designs, but it does not provide virtualization itself. Therefore, the correct tool for provisioning virtual machines is the hypervisor.
C
Explanation:
To provision and run multiple virtual machines on a physical server, the administrator must use a hypervisor. A hypervisor is the virtualization layer that creates, runs, and manages virtual machines by abstracting physical hardware resources such as CPU, RAM, storage, and network adapters into virtual resources presented to each VM. Once the server is configured with the required hardware support (such as sufficient RAM/CPU capacity and virtualization features enabled in firmware), the hypervisor is the component that enables VM creation, allocation of resources, virtual disk creation, and VM lifecycle actions like start, stop, suspend, snapshots, and virtual networking configuration.
Device Manager is used to view and manage hardware devices and drivers on an operating system, but it is not a VM provisioning tool. Disk Management can partition and format disks, which may support storage preparation, but it does not create or run VMs. A Virtual LAN is a network segmentation method at Layer 2 and may be used in VM networking designs, but it does not provide virtualization itself. Therefore, the correct tool for provisioning virtual machines is the hypervisor.
Question #12
Which of the following allows a physical server to host multiple virtual machines?
- A . Cross-platform virtualization
- B . Hypervisor
- C . Sandbox
- D . SaaS
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A hypervisor is software or firmware that allows multiple operating systems (virtual machines) to run on a single physical host. It manages the allocation of resources and isolation of each VM.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 C Virtualization concepts:
“A hypervisor is the key component of virtualization, enabling a physical server to host multiple virtual machines (VMs), each with its own OS and resources.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Virtualization CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7
B
Explanation:
A hypervisor is software or firmware that allows multiple operating systems (virtual machines) to run on a single physical host. It manages the allocation of resources and isolation of each VM.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 C Virtualization concepts:
“A hypervisor is the key component of virtualization, enabling a physical server to host multiple virtual machines (VMs), each with its own OS and resources.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Virtualization CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7
Question #13
An IT specialist is setting up a new, custom computer. The specialist wants to minimize the number of power cables to keep the internal components organized and uncluttered.
Which of the following power supply types should the specialist use?
- A . Modular
- B . Redundant
- C . Linear
- D . External
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A modular power supply allows the user to connect only the cables needed, reducing clutter and improving organization inside the case.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.3 C Power supplies:
“Modular power supplies provide detachable cables, allowing users to use only the required connections for a neater build.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Power Supplies CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.3 =
A
Explanation:
A modular power supply allows the user to connect only the cables needed, reducing clutter and improving organization inside the case.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.3 C Power supplies:
“Modular power supplies provide detachable cables, allowing users to use only the required connections for a neater build.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Power Supplies CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.3 =
Question #14
A salesperson is unable to use a personal device to access emails and calendar features at a client site but was able to use the device while at the office.
Which of the following policies has been enforced on the salesperson’s mobile device?
- A . MOW
- B . MAN
- C . MFA
- D . MAM
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Mobile Application Management (MAM) enforces policies restricting access to apps and services based on location, ensuring security at external sites.
Why Not A (MOW): "Mobile Only Workplace" (MOW) is not a recognized term in this context.
Why Not B (MAN): Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is unrelated to mobile device policies.
Why Not C (MFA): Multi-Factor Authentication secures user accounts but does not enforce app restrictions.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.7, mobile device security policies.
D
Explanation:
Mobile Application Management (MAM) enforces policies restricting access to apps and services based on location, ensuring security at external sites.
Why Not A (MOW): "Mobile Only Workplace" (MOW) is not a recognized term in this context.
Why Not B (MAN): Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is unrelated to mobile device policies.
Why Not C (MFA): Multi-Factor Authentication secures user accounts but does not enforce app restrictions.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.7, mobile device security policies.
Question #15
A shared printer experiences an outage when users submit numerous print jobs at the same time.
Which of the following will an engineer most likely do after verifying network connectivity?
- A . Reboot the server.
- B . Reinstall the printer drivers.
- C . Reset the printer to factory settings.
- D . Restart the spooler service.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
In networked print environments, print jobs are processed through a system service called the print spooler. CompTIA A+ stresses that when shared printers fail due to job overload, the problem often lies with a hung or overloaded spooler service, especially when multiple jobs are sent simultaneously. The spooler queues, organizes, and processes print jobs; if it becomes overwhelmed or corrupted, printing stops completely even though the network and printer hardware remain functional.
After verifying network connectivity―as the question states― the next logical and CompTIA-aligned troubleshooting step is to restart the spooler service (D). Restarting it clears stuck or corrupt jobs, reinitializes print processing, and restores functionality without requiring a full server reboot or reinstallation of drivers.
Rebooting the server (A) may work but is unnecessarily disruptive and affects multiple services. Reinstalling printer drivers (B) is only warranted for driver corruption issues and is not the first step for spooler congestion. Resetting the printer to factory defaults (C) erases settings and is far too drastic for a simple print queue issue.
Therefore, the most efficient and technically correct action is restarting the print spooler service, restoring printing immediately while maintaining normal server operations.
D
Explanation:
In networked print environments, print jobs are processed through a system service called the print spooler. CompTIA A+ stresses that when shared printers fail due to job overload, the problem often lies with a hung or overloaded spooler service, especially when multiple jobs are sent simultaneously. The spooler queues, organizes, and processes print jobs; if it becomes overwhelmed or corrupted, printing stops completely even though the network and printer hardware remain functional.
After verifying network connectivity―as the question states― the next logical and CompTIA-aligned troubleshooting step is to restart the spooler service (D). Restarting it clears stuck or corrupt jobs, reinitializes print processing, and restores functionality without requiring a full server reboot or reinstallation of drivers.
Rebooting the server (A) may work but is unnecessarily disruptive and affects multiple services. Reinstalling printer drivers (B) is only warranted for driver corruption issues and is not the first step for spooler congestion. Resetting the printer to factory defaults (C) erases settings and is far too drastic for a simple print queue issue.
Therefore, the most efficient and technically correct action is restarting the print spooler service, restoring printing immediately while maintaining normal server operations.
Question #16
Which of the following cloud models would multiple organizations in the same industry most likely use?
- A . Public
- B . Hybrid
- C . Community
- D . Private
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A Community Cloud is designed for use by several organizations with shared concerns (e.g., security, compliance, jurisdiction). It’s common in industries like healthcare or finance where multiple entities benefit from a common infrastructure with shared policies.
Option A (Public): Open to general public or large industry group less secure.
Option B (Hybrid): Mix of public and private does not imply industry collaboration.
Option D (Private): Dedicated to a single organization. CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective
Reference: Objective 2.1: Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts.
C
Explanation:
A Community Cloud is designed for use by several organizations with shared concerns (e.g., security, compliance, jurisdiction). It’s common in industries like healthcare or finance where multiple entities benefit from a common infrastructure with shared policies.
Option A (Public): Open to general public or large industry group less secure.
Option B (Hybrid): Mix of public and private does not imply industry collaboration.
Option D (Private): Dedicated to a single organization. CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective
Reference: Objective 2.1: Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts.
Question #17
Which of the following is commonly affected by high latency?
- A . Satellite
- B . Fiber
- C . Cable
- D . DSL
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
CompTIA A+ emphasizes that satellite internet connections inherently suffer from extremely high latency because the data must travel from the user’s antenna to satellites orbiting tens of thousands
of miles above Earth and back. Although satellite systems offer broad geographic coverage, this long travel distance introduces noticeable delays often 500ms or more.
Fiber, cable, and DSL operate through terrestrial wiring and have far lower latency due to short signal paths. Fiber, in particular, is the fastest and lowest-latency connection type.
Satellite delay significantly impacts VoIP calls, video conferencing, online gaming, and real-time applications. The A+ exam specifically notes latency as a major performance characteristic of satellite service, distinguishing it from other broadband technologies.
A
Explanation:
CompTIA A+ emphasizes that satellite internet connections inherently suffer from extremely high latency because the data must travel from the user’s antenna to satellites orbiting tens of thousands
of miles above Earth and back. Although satellite systems offer broad geographic coverage, this long travel distance introduces noticeable delays often 500ms or more.
Fiber, cable, and DSL operate through terrestrial wiring and have far lower latency due to short signal paths. Fiber, in particular, is the fastest and lowest-latency connection type.
Satellite delay significantly impacts VoIP calls, video conferencing, online gaming, and real-time applications. The A+ exam specifically notes latency as a major performance characteristic of satellite service, distinguishing it from other broadband technologies.
Question #18
Which of the following networking hardware devices is primarily used to connect different network segments and forward data based on MAC addresses?
- A . Router
- B . Switch
- C . Modem
- D . Firewall
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A switch is the device that primarily forwards traffic based on MAC addresses and is used to connect devices within the same local network. It operates at Layer 2 (Data Link) of the OSI model. When a switch receives an Ethernet frame, it reads the source MAC address and records it in its MAC address table along with the port it arrived on. Then, when the switch needs to send a frame to a destination, it looks up the destination MAC address in that table and forwards the frame only out the correct port. This makes switching efficient and reduces unnecessary traffic compared to older hub-based networks. In CompTIA A+ Core 1, recognizing that MAC-based forwarding is a key switch function is essential.
A router forwards traffic based on IP addresses at Layer 3 and is used to connect different IP networks or VLANs. A modem converts signals for ISP connectivity (e.g., cable/DSL/fiber handoff) and does not forward frames by MAC table learning. A firewall filters traffic based on security rules and is not primarily a MAC-forwarding device. Therefore, the best answer is Switch.
B
Explanation:
A switch is the device that primarily forwards traffic based on MAC addresses and is used to connect devices within the same local network. It operates at Layer 2 (Data Link) of the OSI model. When a switch receives an Ethernet frame, it reads the source MAC address and records it in its MAC address table along with the port it arrived on. Then, when the switch needs to send a frame to a destination, it looks up the destination MAC address in that table and forwards the frame only out the correct port. This makes switching efficient and reduces unnecessary traffic compared to older hub-based networks. In CompTIA A+ Core 1, recognizing that MAC-based forwarding is a key switch function is essential.
A router forwards traffic based on IP addresses at Layer 3 and is used to connect different IP networks or VLANs. A modem converts signals for ISP connectivity (e.g., cable/DSL/fiber handoff) and does not forward frames by MAC table learning. A firewall filters traffic based on security rules and is not primarily a MAC-forwarding device. Therefore, the best answer is Switch.
Question #19
A user’s computer is connected to a docking station at their desk. The user cannot access the department file servers even though the docking station has a hardwired connection.
Which of the following steps should a technician take to restore the user’s access?
- A . Update the docking station firmware.
- B . Restart the computer.
- C . Disable Wi-Fi.
- D . Replace the Ethernet cable.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
In CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) networking and troubleshooting, a common cause of “can’t reach internal resources” while docked is that the laptop is still using the wireless interface (or has a higher interface priority for Wi-Fi) instead of the docking station’s wired Ethernet connection. If the Wi-Fi network is a guest/isolated VLAN, uses different routing, or has stricter access controls, the user may be blocked from reaching department file servers even though an Ethernet cable is physically connected to the dock. Disabling Wi-Fi is a fast, low-risk step that forces the system to use the wired NIC path through the docking station, which typically provides the correct corporate network access, DHCP scope, and routing to internal servers.
Restarting the computer might help in some cases, but it’s less targeted and not the “best next step” when the likely issue is interface selection. Replacing the Ethernet cable is appropriate if link lights are off or the wired connection is clearly down, but the scenario highlights that the dock has a hardwired connection―suggesting the physical layer may be fine. Dock firmware updates are not a first-line fix for basic connectivity/access symptoms.
C
Explanation:
In CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) networking and troubleshooting, a common cause of “can’t reach internal resources” while docked is that the laptop is still using the wireless interface (or has a higher interface priority for Wi-Fi) instead of the docking station’s wired Ethernet connection. If the Wi-Fi network is a guest/isolated VLAN, uses different routing, or has stricter access controls, the user may be blocked from reaching department file servers even though an Ethernet cable is physically connected to the dock. Disabling Wi-Fi is a fast, low-risk step that forces the system to use the wired NIC path through the docking station, which typically provides the correct corporate network access, DHCP scope, and routing to internal servers.
Restarting the computer might help in some cases, but it’s less targeted and not the “best next step” when the likely issue is interface selection. Replacing the Ethernet cable is appropriate if link lights are off or the wired connection is clearly down, but the scenario highlights that the dock has a hardwired connection―suggesting the physical layer may be fine. Dock firmware updates are not a first-line fix for basic connectivity/access symptoms.
Question #20
The output from a dot matrix printer has become lighter over time.
Which of the following should a technician do to fix the issue?
- A . Clean the printhead.
- B . Replace the ribbon.
- C . Install a maintenance kit.
- D . Calibrate the alignment.
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Dot matrix printers use an inked ribbon that physically contacts the paper through tiny pins. Over time, the ribbon wears out or dries up, resulting in faded or light print output. Replacing the ribbon restores print quality.
Option A: Cleaning helps with image clarity, not ink density.
Option C: Maintenance kits apply to laser printers, not dot matrix.
Option D: Calibration affects print position, not darkness. CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective
Reference: Objective 3.7: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common printer problems.
B
Explanation:
Dot matrix printers use an inked ribbon that physically contacts the paper through tiny pins. Over time, the ribbon wears out or dries up, resulting in faded or light print output. Replacing the ribbon restores print quality.
Option A: Cleaning helps with image clarity, not ink density.
Option C: Maintenance kits apply to laser printers, not dot matrix.
Option D: Calibration affects print position, not darkness. CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective
Reference: Objective 3.7: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common printer problems.