Practice Free 220-1201 Exam Online Questions
Question #81
A drive for a RAID 1 array fails. Users are concerned that information could be lost.
Which of the following is the best way to manage the situation?
- A . Repairing and reinstalling the defective disk to recover any files
- B . Discarding the defective disk without further action
- C . Replacing the defective disk and syncing the new one so that all files are retained
- D . Finding the latest backup of the legacy server and restoring it to transfer the files
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A RAID 1 array uses disk mirroring, meaning all data is written identically to two drives. When one drive fails, the other contains a complete, current copy of the data. CompTIA A+ emphasizes that RAID 1 is designed for fault tolerance, allowing continued operation even after a disk failure.
The correct action is to replace the defective drive and allow the RAID controller to rebuild (sync) the mirror onto the new disk. This restores redundancy and ensures ongoing data protection. The system can typically continue running during the rebuild process.
Option A is incorrect because attempting to repair a failed drive is unreliable and unnecessary―RAID 1 already provides a healthy copy.
Option B ignores the importance of restoring redundancy, leaving the system vulnerable to data loss if the remaining drive fails.
Option D (restore from backup) is unnecessary because RAID 1 already preserves the data.
Therefore, the best solution is to install a new drive and resynchronize the array, preserving all data with minimal disruption.
C
Explanation:
A RAID 1 array uses disk mirroring, meaning all data is written identically to two drives. When one drive fails, the other contains a complete, current copy of the data. CompTIA A+ emphasizes that RAID 1 is designed for fault tolerance, allowing continued operation even after a disk failure.
The correct action is to replace the defective drive and allow the RAID controller to rebuild (sync) the mirror onto the new disk. This restores redundancy and ensures ongoing data protection. The system can typically continue running during the rebuild process.
Option A is incorrect because attempting to repair a failed drive is unreliable and unnecessary―RAID 1 already provides a healthy copy.
Option B ignores the importance of restoring redundancy, leaving the system vulnerable to data loss if the remaining drive fails.
Option D (restore from backup) is unnecessary because RAID 1 already preserves the data.
Therefore, the best solution is to install a new drive and resynchronize the array, preserving all data with minimal disruption.
Question #82
A company wants to use cloud services with the requirement that data will reside on physical hardware that will not be shared with other companies.
Which of the following meets this requirement?
- A . Dedicated resources
- B . Elasticity
- C . Hybrid cloud
- D . SaaS
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Dedicated resources (sometimes called single-tenant or bare metal) guarantee that physical hardware is allocated exclusively to one customer and not shared.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 C Cloud deployment models:
“Dedicated resources ensure data isolation at the hardware level for compliance and security.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud Deployment CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7
A
Explanation:
Dedicated resources (sometimes called single-tenant or bare metal) guarantee that physical hardware is allocated exclusively to one customer and not shared.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 C Cloud deployment models:
“Dedicated resources ensure data isolation at the hardware level for compliance and security.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud Deployment CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7
Question #83
Which of the following is a characteristic to consider when selecting a satellite internet connection?
- A . Necessary proximity to urban infrastructure
- B . eSIM requirement
- C . Line of sight to nearby tower
- D . Increased latency
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Satellite internet commonly has increased latency compared to cable, fiber, or many fixed wireless options. Latency is the delay between sending data and receiving a response, and it matters a lot for real-time activities such as video conferencing, VoIP calls, remote desktop sessions, and online gaming. With satellite service, data must travel from the user’s dish up to a satellite and then down to a ground station (and back again for responses). That longer path adds noticeable delay even when download speeds seem acceptable. CompTIA A+ Core 1 networking concepts emphasize matching connection types to expected performance characteristics, and satellite’s latency is one of its key trade-offs.
The other options do not fit satellite connectivity. Satellite service is often chosen specifically because it does not require proximity to urban infrastructure (A) like cable/fiber. An eSIM requirement (B) relates to cellular service, not satellite broadband. Line of sight to a nearby tower (C) is a characteristic of cellular or fixed wireless, whereas satellite requires a clear view of the sky toward the satellite’s position, not a terrestrial tower. Therefore, increased latency is the best characteristic to consider.
D
Explanation:
Satellite internet commonly has increased latency compared to cable, fiber, or many fixed wireless options. Latency is the delay between sending data and receiving a response, and it matters a lot for real-time activities such as video conferencing, VoIP calls, remote desktop sessions, and online gaming. With satellite service, data must travel from the user’s dish up to a satellite and then down to a ground station (and back again for responses). That longer path adds noticeable delay even when download speeds seem acceptable. CompTIA A+ Core 1 networking concepts emphasize matching connection types to expected performance characteristics, and satellite’s latency is one of its key trade-offs.
The other options do not fit satellite connectivity. Satellite service is often chosen specifically because it does not require proximity to urban infrastructure (A) like cable/fiber. An eSIM requirement (B) relates to cellular service, not satellite broadband. Line of sight to a nearby tower (C) is a characteristic of cellular or fixed wireless, whereas satellite requires a clear view of the sky toward the satellite’s position, not a terrestrial tower. Therefore, increased latency is the best characteristic to consider.
Question #84
A human resources department uses a network shared with other departments to produce a variety of printed resources for legal retention. The human resources department only wants Its members to have access to these materials.
Which of the following should the technician Implement?
- A . Security groups
- B . Audit logs
- C . Time-of-day access
- D . Print server
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Security groups are used to manage access permissions to network resources, ensuring only authorized HR department members can access the shared materials.
Why Not B (Audit logs): Audit logs monitor activity but do not restrict access.
Why Not C (Time-of-day access): Time-of-day access limits when users can access resources but doesn’t specify user permissions.
Why Not D (Print server): A print server manages print jobs but does not control file access.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.5, access control and permissions.
A
Explanation:
Security groups are used to manage access permissions to network resources, ensuring only authorized HR department members can access the shared materials.
Why Not B (Audit logs): Audit logs monitor activity but do not restrict access.
Why Not C (Time-of-day access): Time-of-day access limits when users can access resources but doesn’t specify user permissions.
Why Not D (Print server): A print server manages print jobs but does not control file access.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.5, access control and permissions.
Question #85
Which of the following internet connection types is the best for extremely high data transfer with symmetrical upload and download speeds?
- A . DSL
- B . Cellular
- C . Fiber
- D . Satellite
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Fiber optic connections provide the highest data transfer rates and symmetrical upload and download speeds. This makes fiber the ideal choice for applications requiring high-speed connectivity, such as video conferencing, large file transfers, and cloud-based workflows.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives C Domain 2.0 Networking C Objective 2.7: Compare and contrast internet connection types, network types, and their features.
C
Explanation:
Fiber optic connections provide the highest data transfer rates and symmetrical upload and download speeds. This makes fiber the ideal choice for applications requiring high-speed connectivity, such as video conferencing, large file transfers, and cloud-based workflows.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives C Domain 2.0 Networking C Objective 2.7: Compare and contrast internet connection types, network types, and their features.
Question #86
An office manager wants to scan a contract that is approximately 300 pages. The office manager is concerned the process will take a long time because each page must be scanned individually.
Which of the following can the office manager use to increase the speed of scanning?
- A . Flatbed scanner
- B . Duplexing
- C . Automatic document feeder
- D . Orientation configuration
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
An automatic document feeder (ADF) is designed to speed up scanning jobs that involve many pages by feeding sheets through the scanner automatically, one after another, without requiring the user to lift the lid and position each page manually. For a 300-page contract, the biggest time loss is the manual handling of every page on a flatbed. With an ADF-equipped scanner or multifunction printer, the user can load a stack of pages into the feeder tray and the device will process them continuously, greatly improving productivity and reducing user effort. This is a common CompTIA A+ Core 1 concept when comparing scanner hardware features and selecting the correct device for high-volume tasks.
A flatbed scanner (A) is typically slower for large documents because it requires manual placement of each page. Duplexing (B) can be helpful when scanning double-sided documents because it captures both sides automatically, but it does not address the “each page must be scanned individually” issue as effectively as an ADF does for high page counts. Orientation configuration (D) only changes how pages are rotated or aligned in the output file and does not increase scan throughput. Therefore, an ADF is the best choice to increase scanning speed for a large contract.
C
Explanation:
An automatic document feeder (ADF) is designed to speed up scanning jobs that involve many pages by feeding sheets through the scanner automatically, one after another, without requiring the user to lift the lid and position each page manually. For a 300-page contract, the biggest time loss is the manual handling of every page on a flatbed. With an ADF-equipped scanner or multifunction printer, the user can load a stack of pages into the feeder tray and the device will process them continuously, greatly improving productivity and reducing user effort. This is a common CompTIA A+ Core 1 concept when comparing scanner hardware features and selecting the correct device for high-volume tasks.
A flatbed scanner (A) is typically slower for large documents because it requires manual placement of each page. Duplexing (B) can be helpful when scanning double-sided documents because it captures both sides automatically, but it does not address the “each page must be scanned individually” issue as effectively as an ADF does for high page counts. Orientation configuration (D) only changes how pages are rotated or aligned in the output file and does not increase scan throughput. Therefore, an ADF is the best choice to increase scanning speed for a large contract.
Question #87
A customer is able to print most documents with their USB inkjet printer, but the system is unresponsive when printing a certain report from a custom application. Nothing will print until the computer is restarted and the printer is power cycled. A technician remotes into the PC and confirms that the spooler stops working when this report is sent. After cleaning the spooler and reinstalling the drivers from the manufacturer’s website, the issue persists. No other sites using the application report similar issues.
Which of the following is most likely causing the issue?
- A . The manufacturer is curating content before it reaches the device to preserve ink.
- B . The application has a bug that the developer needs to address.
- C . The system is using the PostScript language instead of the PCL.
- D . Personal preferences have changed and documents with graphics are now online-only
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
If a print spooler crashes specifically with one application and no issue occurs on other systems, the most likely root cause is a bug within that specific application. Restarting the spooler and reinstalling drivers resolves system-wide or hardware-related issues not app-specific failures. This indicates the application may be sending malformed print data.
Reference: "CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide" by Mike Meyers C Chapter 26, page 1144.
B
Explanation:
If a print spooler crashes specifically with one application and no issue occurs on other systems, the most likely root cause is a bug within that specific application. Restarting the spooler and reinstalling drivers resolves system-wide or hardware-related issues not app-specific failures. This indicates the application may be sending malformed print data.
Reference: "CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide" by Mike Meyers C Chapter 26, page 1144.
Question #88
A technician recently updated the firmware on a dual-BIOS motherboard. Following the update, the system has been stuck in a boot loop and cannot start an OS from any internal or external device. The technician cannot access the UEFI menu either.
Which of the following should the technician do next?
- A . Enable the secondary configuration.
- B . Downgrade the firmware via USB.
- C . Start a warranty repair of the motherboard.
- D . Reapply thermal paste to the CPU.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Dual-BIOS motherboards contain two firmware chips. If the primary BIOS becomes corrupted, the system can failover to the secondary BIOS. Most boards allow manual enabling of the secondary BIOS via a physical switch or jumper.
Option B: Downgrading firmware may not be possible if the system won’t POST or access UEFI.
Option C: Not necessary until both BIOS chips are non-functional.
Option D: Thermal paste affects heat dissipation, not BIOS/boot behavior. CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective
Reference: Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems related to motherboards, RAM, CPU, and power.
A
Explanation:
Dual-BIOS motherboards contain two firmware chips. If the primary BIOS becomes corrupted, the system can failover to the secondary BIOS. Most boards allow manual enabling of the secondary BIOS via a physical switch or jumper.
Option B: Downgrading firmware may not be possible if the system won’t POST or access UEFI.
Option C: Not necessary until both BIOS chips are non-functional.
Option D: Thermal paste affects heat dissipation, not BIOS/boot behavior. CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective
Reference: Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems related to motherboards, RAM, CPU, and power.
Question #89
A programmer needs to run a virtual machine on their laptop to test an application.
Which of the following virtualization technologies is the best way to accomplish this goal?
- A . Containerization
- B . Hypervisor
- C . Virtual desktop infrastructure
- D . Emulation
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A hypervisor is the best choice because it is the technology specifically used to create, run, and manage virtual machines. On a laptop, this is typically a Type 2 hypervisor (hosted hypervisor) that runs on top of the existing operating system and allows the programmer to install a separate guest OS in a VM for testing. This provides strong isolation, supports snapshots/checkpoints in many platforms, and lets the tester replicate different OS environments, configurations, and software dependencies without altering the host system. That matches the scenario exactly: the user needs an actual VM environment on their local machine.
Containerization is useful for packaging and running applications in isolated user spaces, but containers share the host OS kernel and are not full virtual machines. If the test requires a different OS or kernel-level behavior, containers won’t meet the requirement. VDI delivers desktops hosted on remote servers, not a local VM running on the laptop. Emulation imitates different hardware/architectures and is typically slower and used when running software built for incompatible hardware, which is unnecessary for standard VM testing. Therefore, a hypervisor is the best answer.
B
Explanation:
A hypervisor is the best choice because it is the technology specifically used to create, run, and manage virtual machines. On a laptop, this is typically a Type 2 hypervisor (hosted hypervisor) that runs on top of the existing operating system and allows the programmer to install a separate guest OS in a VM for testing. This provides strong isolation, supports snapshots/checkpoints in many platforms, and lets the tester replicate different OS environments, configurations, and software dependencies without altering the host system. That matches the scenario exactly: the user needs an actual VM environment on their local machine.
Containerization is useful for packaging and running applications in isolated user spaces, but containers share the host OS kernel and are not full virtual machines. If the test requires a different OS or kernel-level behavior, containers won’t meet the requirement. VDI delivers desktops hosted on remote servers, not a local VM running on the laptop. Emulation imitates different hardware/architectures and is typically slower and used when running software built for incompatible hardware, which is unnecessary for standard VM testing. Therefore, a hypervisor is the best answer.
Question #90
Users in a 200-person call center report that phone calls experience severe performance degradation on busy days.
The technician confirms:
• Upload and download speeds are 50Mbps during a speed test.
• VoIP call prioritization settings are properly configured for the VLAN that the call center uses.
Which of the following is most likely the cause of this issue?
- A . The QoS is not configured correctly on the router.
- B . The switchports dedicated to the call center are flapping.
- C . The call center’s VLAN is not configured to allow voice traffic.
- D . The bandwidth dedicated to the call center is insufficient.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Voice over IP (VoIP) traffic is highly sensitive to latency, jitter, and packet loss, especially in large environments such as a 200-person call center. Although the technician confirms that VoIP prioritization (QoS) is configured correctly and speed tests show 50 Mbps upload and download speeds, overall available bandwidth can still be insufficient during peak usage.
Speed tests measure raw throughput at a point in time and do not reflect real-world congestion caused by hundreds of simultaneous calls, application usage, and data transfers. On busy days, the cumulative bandwidth demand likely exceeds the available capacity, leading to degraded call quality despite correct VLAN and QoS settings.
If QoS were misconfigured or the VLAN did not allow voice traffic, call issues would be consistent at all times, not only during peak periods. Flapping switchports would cause intermittent connectivity drops rather than predictable performance degradation correlated with high usage.
CompTIA highlights that bandwidth limitations are a common root cause of VoIP performance problems in high-density environments, even when prioritization is properly implemented.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide C Networking Performance, QoS, and VoIP
D
Explanation:
Voice over IP (VoIP) traffic is highly sensitive to latency, jitter, and packet loss, especially in large environments such as a 200-person call center. Although the technician confirms that VoIP prioritization (QoS) is configured correctly and speed tests show 50 Mbps upload and download speeds, overall available bandwidth can still be insufficient during peak usage.
Speed tests measure raw throughput at a point in time and do not reflect real-world congestion caused by hundreds of simultaneous calls, application usage, and data transfers. On busy days, the cumulative bandwidth demand likely exceeds the available capacity, leading to degraded call quality despite correct VLAN and QoS settings.
If QoS were misconfigured or the VLAN did not allow voice traffic, call issues would be consistent at all times, not only during peak periods. Flapping switchports would cause intermittent connectivity drops rather than predictable performance degradation correlated with high usage.
CompTIA highlights that bandwidth limitations are a common root cause of VoIP performance problems in high-density environments, even when prioritization is properly implemented.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide C Networking Performance, QoS, and VoIP