Practice Free 220-1201 Exam Online Questions
Question #61
Which of the following types of RAM would most likely be used in a server?
- A . SODIMM
- B . ECC
- C . Unbuffered
- D . DDR3
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
ECC (Error-Correcting Code) RAM is commonly used in servers because it can detect and correct memory errors, providing greater stability and reliability for mission-critical environments.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.2 C Types of RAM:
“Servers often require ECC memory, which can detect and correct single-bit errors, preventing data corruption and increasing system reliability.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Memory Technologies CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.2
B
Explanation:
ECC (Error-Correcting Code) RAM is commonly used in servers because it can detect and correct memory errors, providing greater stability and reliability for mission-critical environments.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.2 C Types of RAM:
“Servers often require ECC memory, which can detect and correct single-bit errors, preventing data corruption and increasing system reliability.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Memory Technologies CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.2
Question #62
A customer reports that the output from their thermal receipt printer has vertical white lines.
Which of the following would most likely resolve this issue?
- A . Replacing the ink cartridge
- B . Using the correct paper type
- C . Installing a maintenance kit
- D . Cleaning the heating element
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Thermal printers create images using a heated print head on specially coated thermal paper. Vertical white lines indicate that part of the heating element is dirty or blocked, preventing heat transfer to the paper. Cleaning the print head (heating element) will restore full functionality.
Option A: Thermal printers do not use ink or toner, so this is not applicable.
Option B: Wrong paper could cause blank output, but consistent vertical lines point to the print head.
Option C: Maintenance kits are typically for laser printers, not thermal printers.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective
Reference: Objective 3.7: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common printer problems.
D
Explanation:
Thermal printers create images using a heated print head on specially coated thermal paper. Vertical white lines indicate that part of the heating element is dirty or blocked, preventing heat transfer to the paper. Cleaning the print head (heating element) will restore full functionality.
Option A: Thermal printers do not use ink or toner, so this is not applicable.
Option B: Wrong paper could cause blank output, but consistent vertical lines point to the print head.
Option C: Maintenance kits are typically for laser printers, not thermal printers.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective
Reference: Objective 3.7: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common printer problems.
Question #63
A company wants to enable access to corporate email on smartphones. Employees must install software that separates corporate and personal data.
Which should the company implement?
- A . Encryption
- B . Network access control
- C . Mobile device management
- D . Endpoint protection
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The requirement to separate corporate and personal data on employee smartphones is a core function of Mobile Device Management (MDM). CompTIA A+ describes MDM as an enterprise toolset used to enforce security policies, manage applications, configure email profiles, and separate work-related data from personal user data. This separation is typically achieved through features such as containerization, where corporate data is stored in a protected, encrypted workspace that is isolated from the personal side of the device.
This ensures security, prevents data leakage, and enables IT administrators to remotely wipe corporate data without affecting the user’s personal information. MDM solutions are widely used in BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) environments and corporate-issued devices.
Encryption (A) protects data but does not create separation. Network access control (B) restricts network access but does not manage mobile apps or data separation. Endpoint protection (D) refers to antivirus/antimalware, not data partitioning.
Thus, Mobile Device Management (MDM) is the correct solution.
C
Explanation:
The requirement to separate corporate and personal data on employee smartphones is a core function of Mobile Device Management (MDM). CompTIA A+ describes MDM as an enterprise toolset used to enforce security policies, manage applications, configure email profiles, and separate work-related data from personal user data. This separation is typically achieved through features such as containerization, where corporate data is stored in a protected, encrypted workspace that is isolated from the personal side of the device.
This ensures security, prevents data leakage, and enables IT administrators to remotely wipe corporate data without affecting the user’s personal information. MDM solutions are widely used in BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) environments and corporate-issued devices.
Encryption (A) protects data but does not create separation. Network access control (B) restricts network access but does not manage mobile apps or data separation. Endpoint protection (D) refers to antivirus/antimalware, not data partitioning.
Thus, Mobile Device Management (MDM) is the correct solution.
Question #64
The computers and IP phones at an office experience degraded performance during the day. The issue does not occur before the start of business.
Which of the following will resolve the issue?
- A . Changing the switches to ones with higher capacity
- B . Using VLANs to segregate data and voice traffic
- C . Adding RAM to the PCs and additional VoIP lines
- D . Updating the firmware on the switches
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Degraded performance that occurs only during business hours strongly suggests network congestion caused by simultaneous data and voice traffic. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking objectives, combining voice (VoIP) and data traffic on the same network without proper segmentation can lead to latency, jitter, and packet loss, especially during peak usage periods.
Implementing VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) allows administrators to logically separate voice and data traffic, enabling better traffic management and prioritization. VLANs also support Quality of Service (QoS) policies that ensure time-sensitive voice traffic is prioritized over standard data traffic, improving call quality and overall performance.
Replacing switches with higher-capacity models is costly and unnecessary if proper traffic segmentation has not yet been implemented. Adding RAM to PCs or VoIP lines does not address network-level congestion. Firmware updates may improve stability but will not resolve sustained performance degradation caused by traffic contention.
CompTIA highlights VLAN implementation as a best practice for environments that use IP phones, especially when performance issues occur during high utilization periods.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide C VLANs, VoIP, and Network Performance
B
Explanation:
Degraded performance that occurs only during business hours strongly suggests network congestion caused by simultaneous data and voice traffic. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking objectives, combining voice (VoIP) and data traffic on the same network without proper segmentation can lead to latency, jitter, and packet loss, especially during peak usage periods.
Implementing VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) allows administrators to logically separate voice and data traffic, enabling better traffic management and prioritization. VLANs also support Quality of Service (QoS) policies that ensure time-sensitive voice traffic is prioritized over standard data traffic, improving call quality and overall performance.
Replacing switches with higher-capacity models is costly and unnecessary if proper traffic segmentation has not yet been implemented. Adding RAM to PCs or VoIP lines does not address network-level congestion. Firmware updates may improve stability but will not resolve sustained performance degradation caused by traffic contention.
CompTIA highlights VLAN implementation as a best practice for environments that use IP phones, especially when performance issues occur during high utilization periods.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide C VLANs, VoIP, and Network Performance
Question #65
A user is receiving many unsolicited emails.
Which of the following controls can be configured to best reduce these types of emails?
- A . Load balancer
- B . Spam gateway
- C . Mail forwarding
- D . Proxy servers
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A spam gateway filters unsolicited emails at the server level, significantly reducing spam before it reaches user inboxes.
Why Not A (Load balancer): Load balancers distribute traffic but don’t filter spam.
Why Not C (Mail forwarding): Forwarding doesn’t filter spam.
Why Not D (Proxy servers): Proxies control web traffic, not email filtering.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.10, email security controls.
B
Explanation:
A spam gateway filters unsolicited emails at the server level, significantly reducing spam before it reaches user inboxes.
Why Not A (Load balancer): Load balancers distribute traffic but don’t filter spam.
Why Not C (Mail forwarding): Forwarding doesn’t filter spam.
Why Not D (Proxy servers): Proxies control web traffic, not email filtering.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.10, email security controls.
Question #66
An IT specialist is setting up a new shared network printer. The printer will receive a pre-allocated IP address via DHCP. Attempting to connect to the printer’s web interface produces a Page not found message. The specialist runs diagnostics and finds that the IP is different than expected.
Which of the following should the specialist check next?
- A . The MAC address used in the reservation
- B . The printer driver on the print server
- C . The subnet mask that the printer is using
- D . The default gateway in the address pool
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
When a device is supposed to receive a specific “pre-allocated” address from DHCP, that typically means a DHCP reservation has been created. DHCP reservations work by mapping a specific MAC address to a chosen IP address so that when that exact device requests an address, the DHCP server always hands it the reserved IP. If diagnostics show the printer received a different IP than expected, the most likely cause is that the reservation is not being applied―commonly because the reservation references the wrong MAC address (typo, using the wrong interface, or copying the MAC of another port such as Wi-Fi vs Ethernet). Verifying the printer’s actual MAC address and matching it to the DHCP reservation is the correct next step.
The printer driver on the print server (B) affects printing functionality, not the printer’s DHCP assignment or ability to browse its embedded web server. Subnet mask (C) and default gateway in the pool (D) could cause connectivity issues, but they would not usually explain why the device received an unexpected IP when a reservation was intended. The key mismatch symptom points first to the MAC address in the reservation.
A
Explanation:
When a device is supposed to receive a specific “pre-allocated” address from DHCP, that typically means a DHCP reservation has been created. DHCP reservations work by mapping a specific MAC address to a chosen IP address so that when that exact device requests an address, the DHCP server always hands it the reserved IP. If diagnostics show the printer received a different IP than expected, the most likely cause is that the reservation is not being applied―commonly because the reservation references the wrong MAC address (typo, using the wrong interface, or copying the MAC of another port such as Wi-Fi vs Ethernet). Verifying the printer’s actual MAC address and matching it to the DHCP reservation is the correct next step.
The printer driver on the print server (B) affects printing functionality, not the printer’s DHCP assignment or ability to browse its embedded web server. Subnet mask (C) and default gateway in the pool (D) could cause connectivity issues, but they would not usually explain why the device received an unexpected IP when a reservation was intended. The key mismatch symptom points first to the MAC address in the reservation.
Question #67
A technician wants to monitor network statistics for devices communicating with one another on the local subnet.
Which of the following devices should the technician install.
- A . Managed switch
- B . Router
- C . Access point
- D . Firewall
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A managed switch provides advanced features such as traffic monitoring and VLAN configuration, allowing a technician to view network statistics for devices on the local subnet.
Why Not B (Router): A router connects different networks and directs traffic between them but does not provide detailed subnet-level statistics.
Why Not C (Access point): Access points provide wireless connectivity but lack traffic monitoring features.
Why Not D (Firewall): A firewall filters traffic but is not used for monitoring detailed statistics on a local subnet.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, network monitoring tools.
A
Explanation:
A managed switch provides advanced features such as traffic monitoring and VLAN configuration, allowing a technician to view network statistics for devices on the local subnet.
Why Not B (Router): A router connects different networks and directs traffic between them but does not provide detailed subnet-level statistics.
Why Not C (Access point): Access points provide wireless connectivity but lack traffic monitoring features.
Why Not D (Firewall): A firewall filters traffic but is not used for monitoring detailed statistics on a local subnet.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, network monitoring tools.
Question #68
A technician is setting up a scan-to-SMB function on a multifunction printer.
Which of the following connection types should the technician configure?
- A . Email server
- B . SFTP connection
- C . Network share
- D . Print services
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The scan-to-SMB feature allows the printer to send scanned documents to a shared folder (SMB share) on the network. Setting up a network share enables the device to securely and conveniently save files for user access.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives C Domain 2.0 Networking C Objective 2.7: Compare and contrast internet connection types, network types, and their features.
C
Explanation:
The scan-to-SMB feature allows the printer to send scanned documents to a shared folder (SMB share) on the network. Setting up a network share enables the device to securely and conveniently save files for user access.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives C Domain 2.0 Networking C Objective 2.7: Compare and contrast internet connection types, network types, and their features.
Question #69
Which of the forming connector types would best suit a company that experiences a large volume of internet traffic?
- A . USB 3.1
- B . Quad-shielded RG11 coax
- C . SATA3.0
- D . Unshielded plenum RJ45
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
RG11 coaxial cable with quad shielding is designed to handle large volumes of internet traffic, providing excellent resistance to interference and high bandwidth capacity.
Why Not A (USB 3.1): USB 3.1 is used for connecting peripherals, not for high-volume internet traffic.
Why Not C (SATA3.0): SATA is used for internal data storage connections, not for network traffic.
Why Not D (Unshielded plenum RJ45): While RJ45 cables are commonly used, unshielded cables are prone to interference and are not ideal for high-volume traffic.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.1, cable types and their characteristics.
B
Explanation:
RG11 coaxial cable with quad shielding is designed to handle large volumes of internet traffic, providing excellent resistance to interference and high bandwidth capacity.
Why Not A (USB 3.1): USB 3.1 is used for connecting peripherals, not for high-volume internet traffic.
Why Not C (SATA3.0): SATA is used for internal data storage connections, not for network traffic.
Why Not D (Unshielded plenum RJ45): While RJ45 cables are commonly used, unshielded cables are prone to interference and are not ideal for high-volume traffic.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.1, cable types and their characteristics.
Question #70
Which of the following describes the function of an injector?
- A . To provide only data connectivity
- B . To supply power across a cable
- C . To improve wireless performance
- D . To extend a network connection
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A PoE injector is used to add power to an Ethernet cable, enabling the cable to deliver both power and data. This is crucial when connecting to PoE-enabled devices like IP cameras or wireless access points that are far from power outlets.
Reference: "CompTIA A+ Complete Practice Tests" by Jeff T. Parker C Chapter 10, Question 77, page 585.
B
Explanation:
A PoE injector is used to add power to an Ethernet cable, enabling the cable to deliver both power and data. This is crucial when connecting to PoE-enabled devices like IP cameras or wireless access points that are far from power outlets.
Reference: "CompTIA A+ Complete Practice Tests" by Jeff T. Parker C Chapter 10, Question 77, page 585.