Practice Free 220-1201 Exam Online Questions
Question #51
Which of the following is a characteristic of an NVMe drive?
- A . M.2 interface
- B . 3.5in (8.9cm) external
- C . 7,200rpm
- D . Molex connector
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) drives commonly use the M.2 interface and provide the highest performance for SSDs.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.2 C Storage devices:
“NVMe drives connect via the M.2 slot and provide the fastest data transfer rates available for storage devices.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Storage Technologies CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.2
A
Explanation:
NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) drives commonly use the M.2 interface and provide the highest performance for SSDs.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.2 C Storage devices:
“NVMe drives connect via the M.2 slot and provide the fastest data transfer rates available for storage devices.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Storage Technologies CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.2
Question #52
A technician has built a new computer. On the initial startup, the computer passes POST but will not turn on the operating system.
Which of the following components has failed?
- A . Audio card
- B . CPU
- C . Power supply
- D . HDD
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
When a newly built computer successfully passes POST, it indicates that the CPU, RAM, motherboard, video output, and other essential components are functioning at a hardware level. POST will typically fail or display error codes if there are problems with the CPU, RAM, GPU, or power delivery. Therefore, the fact that POST succeeds allows us to eliminate those components from suspicion.
The issue arises after POST, when the system attempts to load an operating system. For the OS to load, the BIOS/UEFI must detect a working storage device―such as an HDD, SSD, or NVMe drive― containing a bootable OS. If the computer cannot locate or read the drive, the system will halt at a boot error, such as “No boot device found,” “Insert boot media,” or similar messages. This is consistent with a failed or improperly connected HDD.
A failed HDD prevents access to boot files, even though the rest of the system hardware functions normally. Audio cards are irrelevant to booting. A failed CPU would cause a POST failure, not an OS loading issue. A faulty power supply would affect system stability during POST, not specifically OS boot failure unless the system is not powering at all.
Thus, the failed component is the HDD.
D
Explanation:
When a newly built computer successfully passes POST, it indicates that the CPU, RAM, motherboard, video output, and other essential components are functioning at a hardware level. POST will typically fail or display error codes if there are problems with the CPU, RAM, GPU, or power delivery. Therefore, the fact that POST succeeds allows us to eliminate those components from suspicion.
The issue arises after POST, when the system attempts to load an operating system. For the OS to load, the BIOS/UEFI must detect a working storage device―such as an HDD, SSD, or NVMe drive― containing a bootable OS. If the computer cannot locate or read the drive, the system will halt at a boot error, such as “No boot device found,” “Insert boot media,” or similar messages. This is consistent with a failed or improperly connected HDD.
A failed HDD prevents access to boot files, even though the rest of the system hardware functions normally. Audio cards are irrelevant to booting. A failed CPU would cause a POST failure, not an OS loading issue. A faulty power supply would affect system stability during POST, not specifically OS boot failure unless the system is not powering at all.
Thus, the failed component is the HDD.
Question #53
Which of the following display characteristics would be most important to ensure screen images appear the same as printed output?
- A . Color gamut
- B . Pixel density
- C . Refresh rate
- D . Resolution
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Color gamut refers to the range of colors a display can accurately reproduce. For tasks like graphic
design or photo editing, ensuring the screen’s colors match the printed output is critical. Monitors with wide and accurate color gamuts (e.g., Adobe RGB) are preferred for these applications.
Option B (Pixel density): Incorrect. Pixel density affects image sharpness, not color accuracy.
Option C (Refresh rate): Incorrect. Refresh rate impacts motion smoothness but is unrelated to color matching.
Option D (Resolution): Incorrect. Resolution determines clarity and detail but does not influence color accuracy.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Objectives: 1.2 (Display types and characteristics)
A
Explanation:
Color gamut refers to the range of colors a display can accurately reproduce. For tasks like graphic
design or photo editing, ensuring the screen’s colors match the printed output is critical. Monitors with wide and accurate color gamuts (e.g., Adobe RGB) are preferred for these applications.
Option B (Pixel density): Incorrect. Pixel density affects image sharpness, not color accuracy.
Option C (Refresh rate): Incorrect. Refresh rate impacts motion smoothness but is unrelated to color matching.
Option D (Resolution): Incorrect. Resolution determines clarity and detail but does not influence color accuracy.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Objectives: 1.2 (Display types and characteristics)
Question #54
A user’s laptop experiences intermittent issues during startup. A technician finds that the user has left a corporate flash drive plugged in, which is causing the issues.
Which of the following should the technician configure?
- A . BitLocker
- B . Boot options
- C . USB Enable
- D . TPM features
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
If a laptop has a USB flash drive connected during startup, the system firmware BIOS or UEFI may attempt to boot from that USB device depending on the configured boot order or boot priority. This can cause intermittent startup behavior because the laptop might sometimes detect the flash drive as a bootable device and try to load from it instead of the internal drive, leading to delays, boot errors, or unexpected screens. The correct fix is to adjust boot options in BIOS/UEFI: set the internal SSD/HDD as the first boot device, reduce the priority of USB boot devices, or disable booting from external media when appropriate for the environment. This addresses the root cause directly and prevents the presence of a flash drive from affecting normal startup.
BitLocker and TPM features relate to drive encryption and secure key storage and are not the primary reason the system is changing its boot behavior. “USB Enable” would control whether USB ports function, but disabling USB entirely is not a targeted first step and could break keyboards/mice or legitimate USB use. Therefore, the correct configuration item is Boot options.
B
Explanation:
If a laptop has a USB flash drive connected during startup, the system firmware BIOS or UEFI may attempt to boot from that USB device depending on the configured boot order or boot priority. This can cause intermittent startup behavior because the laptop might sometimes detect the flash drive as a bootable device and try to load from it instead of the internal drive, leading to delays, boot errors, or unexpected screens. The correct fix is to adjust boot options in BIOS/UEFI: set the internal SSD/HDD as the first boot device, reduce the priority of USB boot devices, or disable booting from external media when appropriate for the environment. This addresses the root cause directly and prevents the presence of a flash drive from affecting normal startup.
BitLocker and TPM features relate to drive encryption and secure key storage and are not the primary reason the system is changing its boot behavior. “USB Enable” would control whether USB ports function, but disabling USB entirely is not a targeted first step and could break keyboards/mice or legitimate USB use. Therefore, the correct configuration item is Boot options.
Question #55
A user with a home office wants to add additional devices to the existing internet service while maintaining minimal cost and administration.
Which of the following provides the needed functionality?
- A . DSL modem
- B . Firewall
- C . Unmanaged switch
- D . Cable modem
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
To add additional wired network devices in a simple and cost-effective manner, the best solution is an unmanaged switch. CompTIA A+ explains that unmanaged switches require no configuration, provide instant port expansion, and operate using plug-and-play functionality. This makes them ideal for home offices where the user wants more Ethernet ports without dealing with administrative overhead or complex setup.
An unmanaged switch automatically forwards traffic using MAC addresses, expanding the network without altering IP configuration or security settings. It is inexpensive compared to other networking equipment and requires no firmware updates, VLAN management, or routing knowledge.
A DSL modem or cable modem provides internet service but does not increase the number of available network ports beyond the single LAN port commonly offered. A firewall controls traffic but does not expand physical connectivity. Therefore, neither modem nor firewall options meet the requirement of adding more wired devices.
Thus, the unmanaged switch is the simplest, cheapest, and most practical choice for expanding connectivity in a home office environment.
C
Explanation:
To add additional wired network devices in a simple and cost-effective manner, the best solution is an unmanaged switch. CompTIA A+ explains that unmanaged switches require no configuration, provide instant port expansion, and operate using plug-and-play functionality. This makes them ideal for home offices where the user wants more Ethernet ports without dealing with administrative overhead or complex setup.
An unmanaged switch automatically forwards traffic using MAC addresses, expanding the network without altering IP configuration or security settings. It is inexpensive compared to other networking equipment and requires no firmware updates, VLAN management, or routing knowledge.
A DSL modem or cable modem provides internet service but does not increase the number of available network ports beyond the single LAN port commonly offered. A firewall controls traffic but does not expand physical connectivity. Therefore, neither modem nor firewall options meet the requirement of adding more wired devices.
Thus, the unmanaged switch is the simplest, cheapest, and most practical choice for expanding connectivity in a home office environment.
Question #56
A user ran out of USB ports on their laptop but wants to plug in more devices.
What technology is best?
- A . Near-field communication
- B . Bluetooth
- C . USB receiver
- D . Port replicator
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A port replicator expands the number and types of ports available to a laptop, including additional USB ports, video outputs, Ethernet, and more. CompTIA A+ identifies port replicators as solutions for users needing greater connectivity, especially when docking stations are unnecessary or unavailable.
Port replicators connect through a single USB or proprietary connector and provide multiple expansion ports instantly. This resolves the issue of limited USB availability without requiring hardware replacement.
NFC (A) is used for short-range communication, not peripheral connectivity. Bluetooth (B) only supports wireless peripherals such as mice and headphones, not wired USB devices. A USB receiver
(C) adds wireless capability for one specific device, not general expansion. Thus, the correct solution is a port replicator.
D
Explanation:
A port replicator expands the number and types of ports available to a laptop, including additional USB ports, video outputs, Ethernet, and more. CompTIA A+ identifies port replicators as solutions for users needing greater connectivity, especially when docking stations are unnecessary or unavailable.
Port replicators connect through a single USB or proprietary connector and provide multiple expansion ports instantly. This resolves the issue of limited USB availability without requiring hardware replacement.
NFC (A) is used for short-range communication, not peripheral connectivity. Bluetooth (B) only supports wireless peripherals such as mice and headphones, not wired USB devices. A USB receiver
(C) adds wireless capability for one specific device, not general expansion. Thus, the correct solution is a port replicator.
Question #57
A computer displays an error message indicating there is insufficient storage when installing applications. The user reports slow application load times.
Which of the following replacement components would best resolve this issue?
- A . SSD
- B . USB
- C . HDD
- D . RAM
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Upgrading to asolid-state drive (SSD) provides more storage space and faster read/write speeds, which resolves both the “insufficient storage” error and slow application loads.
Option B (USB): Not intended for permanent application storage or performance improvements.
Option C (HDD): Could solve storage capacity but would not improve speed.
Option D (RAM): Affects multitasking and memory-intensive tasks, not storage capacity directly.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective
Reference: Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems related to storage devices.
A
Explanation:
Upgrading to asolid-state drive (SSD) provides more storage space and faster read/write speeds, which resolves both the “insufficient storage” error and slow application loads.
Option B (USB): Not intended for permanent application storage or performance improvements.
Option C (HDD): Could solve storage capacity but would not improve speed.
Option D (RAM): Affects multitasking and memory-intensive tasks, not storage capacity directly.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective
Reference: Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems related to storage devices.
Question #58
A projector has been shutting down after 30 minutes of use, and it has a strange smell The technician confirms the power source is not the cause of the issue.
Which of the following steps should the technician take next to resolve this issue?
- A . Replace the bulb
- B . Check the projector configuration.
- C . Clean the filter
- D . Adjust the gamma settings.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Reasoning: Projectors have air filters that prevent dust from entering the internal components. A clogged filter can cause the projector to overheat, resulting in shutdowns and even strange smells due to overheating components. Cleaning the filter is a standard troubleshooting step when projectors exhibit overheating symptoms.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
C
Explanation:
Reasoning: Projectors have air filters that prevent dust from entering the internal components. A clogged filter can cause the projector to overheat, resulting in shutdowns and even strange smells due to overheating components. Cleaning the filter is a standard troubleshooting step when projectors exhibit overheating symptoms.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Question #59
Marketing department users report network performance degradation in the morning and early afternoon, but sales and customer service department users do not report any issues. All structured cabling Is Cat 5e. All departments are connected to a core switch.
The running network configuration shows the following:
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the performance issues?
- A . The marketing department subnet has an error.
- B . The structured Cat 5e cabling is outdated.
- C . The interfaces are configured with Incorrect IP addresses.
- D . The marketing department Interface is running at 10/100.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
From the configuration, the Sales and Customer Service ports are hard-set to full duplex, 1000 Mbps, while the Marketing interface (GigabitEthernet0/3) is set to duplex auto and speed auto. CompTIA A+ explains that mismatched or lower-negotiated speeds and duplex settings can cause noticeable network slowdowns, collisions, and retransmissions―especially at busy times of the day when utilization is high.
Because all cabling is Cat 5e, it fully supports Gigabit Ethernet, so the cabling is not the limiting factor. The IP addresses are all in the same subnet (192.168.1.0/24) and formatted correctly, so there is no subnet or addressing problem. That rules out options A and C.
With speed auto, the Marketing port may be negotiating only 10/100 Mbps, or even a duplex mismatch (e.g., half duplex vs full). This would severely limit throughput compared to the gigabit links used by the other departments. In peak periods, that slower link would become congested first, which matches the users’ reports of performance degradation only in Marketing.
Therefore, the most likely cause is that the Marketing interface is operating at 10/100 instead of 1000 Mbps, making option D correct.
D
Explanation:
From the configuration, the Sales and Customer Service ports are hard-set to full duplex, 1000 Mbps, while the Marketing interface (GigabitEthernet0/3) is set to duplex auto and speed auto. CompTIA A+ explains that mismatched or lower-negotiated speeds and duplex settings can cause noticeable network slowdowns, collisions, and retransmissions―especially at busy times of the day when utilization is high.
Because all cabling is Cat 5e, it fully supports Gigabit Ethernet, so the cabling is not the limiting factor. The IP addresses are all in the same subnet (192.168.1.0/24) and formatted correctly, so there is no subnet or addressing problem. That rules out options A and C.
With speed auto, the Marketing port may be negotiating only 10/100 Mbps, or even a duplex mismatch (e.g., half duplex vs full). This would severely limit throughput compared to the gigabit links used by the other departments. In peak periods, that slower link would become congested first, which matches the users’ reports of performance degradation only in Marketing.
Therefore, the most likely cause is that the Marketing interface is operating at 10/100 instead of 1000 Mbps, making option D correct.
Question #60
A company wants to save printing costs by restricting network printer use. The company implements a solution that requires employees to authenticate to the printer to release print jobs.
Which of the following has the company implemented?
- A . Access control list
- B . Audit logging
- C . Badging
- D . Print server
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Badging is a form of authentication that requires employees to use a badge or ID card to release print jobs. This solution reduces unnecessary printing by ensuring only authorized users print.
Why Not A (Access control list): While ACLs manage permissions, they are not used for physical authentication at printers.
Why Not B (Audit logging): Audit logs track actions but do not restrict printer access.
Why Not D (Print server): A print server manages print jobs but doesn’t enforce authentication.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.5, authentication mechanisms.
C
Explanation:
Badging is a form of authentication that requires employees to use a badge or ID card to release print jobs. This solution reduces unnecessary printing by ensuring only authorized users print.
Why Not A (Access control list): While ACLs manage permissions, they are not used for physical authentication at printers.
Why Not B (Audit logging): Audit logs track actions but do not restrict printer access.
Why Not D (Print server): A print server manages print jobs but doesn’t enforce authentication.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.5, authentication mechanisms.