Practice Free 220-1201 Exam Online Questions
Question #51
A salesperson is unable to reach the internet from a home office PC A support technician wants to verify the router is receiving a valid public IP address.
Which of the Wowing is a valid public IP address in this scenario?
- A . 10.254.128.11
- B . 66.157.195.20
- C . 172.16.0.30
- D . 192.168 1.50
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A valid public IP address must fall outside the private IP address ranges:
B
Explanation:
A valid public IP address must fall outside the private IP address ranges:
Question #52
Which of the following is used primarily for archiving data?
- A . PAN
- B . MAN
- C . SAN
- D . LAN
- E . WAN
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A Storage Area Network (SAN) is primarily used for data archiving and large-scale storage. SANs provide high-speed, block-level storage for enterprise environments.
Why Not A (PAN): Personal Area Networks are for connecting personal devices like phones and smartwatches.
Why Not B (MAN): Metropolitan Area Networks are for city-wide data communication, not storage.
Why Not D (LAN): Local Area Networks are for general connectivity, not dedicated storage.
Why Not WAN: Wide Area Networks are for connecting geographically dispersed networks, not storage.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.7, network types and purposes.
C
Explanation:
A Storage Area Network (SAN) is primarily used for data archiving and large-scale storage. SANs provide high-speed, block-level storage for enterprise environments.
Why Not A (PAN): Personal Area Networks are for connecting personal devices like phones and smartwatches.
Why Not B (MAN): Metropolitan Area Networks are for city-wide data communication, not storage.
Why Not D (LAN): Local Area Networks are for general connectivity, not dedicated storage.
Why Not WAN: Wide Area Networks are for connecting geographically dispersed networks, not storage.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.7, network types and purposes.
Question #53
Which of the following statements best summarize managed vs unmanaged switches? (Select two).
- A . Unmanaged switches are generally more expensive
- B . Unmanaged switches have more security capabilities
- C . Unmanaged switches start working as soon as they are plugged in to the network
- D . Managed switches have more features
- E . Managed switches require no configuration
- F . Managed switches consume less power
Correct Answer: C,D
C,D
Explanation:
Unmanaged switches require no configuration―they simply need to be plugged in and start working immediately, making them ideal for simple network setups.
Managed switches provide advanced features such as VLANs, SNMP monitoring, port security, and traffic management, but require configuration.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.2 C Compare and contrast common networking hardware:
“Unmanaged switches operate out of the box with no configuration and are designed for simple
connectivity. Managed switches allow for configuration, monitoring, and management of network
traffic and security.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Networking Hardware CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.2
C,D
Explanation:
Unmanaged switches require no configuration―they simply need to be plugged in and start working immediately, making them ideal for simple network setups.
Managed switches provide advanced features such as VLANs, SNMP monitoring, port security, and traffic management, but require configuration.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.2 C Compare and contrast common networking hardware:
“Unmanaged switches operate out of the box with no configuration and are designed for simple
connectivity. Managed switches allow for configuration, monitoring, and management of network
traffic and security.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Networking Hardware CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.2
Question #54
A technician is setting up a scan-to-SMB function on a multifunction printer.
Which of the following connection types should the technician configure?
- A . Email server
- B . SFTP connection
- C . Network share
- D . Print services
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The scan-to-SMB feature allows the printer to send scanned documents to a shared folder (SMB share) on the network. Setting up a network share enables the device to securely and conveniently save files for user access.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives C Domain 2.0 Networking C Objective 2.7: Compare and contrast internet connection types, network types, and their features.
C
Explanation:
The scan-to-SMB feature allows the printer to send scanned documents to a shared folder (SMB share) on the network. Setting up a network share enables the device to securely and conveniently save files for user access.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives C Domain 2.0 Networking C Objective 2.7: Compare and contrast internet connection types, network types, and their features.
Question #55
A technician upgrades a PC with two DIMMs, for a total of 32GB. After installing the two DIMMs, the user notices the OS is reporting only 16GB.
Which of the following tasks should the technician perform to resolve the issue in the most rapid, cost-effective way possible?
- A . Roll back recent system updates
- B . Reinstall RAM in different slots.
- C . Update the OS to the latest version
- D . Replace the faulty motherboard
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
If newly installed RAM is not fully recognized, the most likely cause is incorrect installation or incompatible slots. Reseating or reinstalling the RAM modules in the correct slots can quickly resolve the issue without extra cost.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.2 C Install and configure PC components:
"If memory is not detected, check installation and reseat modules. Ensure they are placed in the correct, matched slots for dual-channel operation."
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Memory Installation CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.2
B
Explanation:
If newly installed RAM is not fully recognized, the most likely cause is incorrect installation or incompatible slots. Reseating or reinstalling the RAM modules in the correct slots can quickly resolve the issue without extra cost.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.2 C Install and configure PC components:
"If memory is not detected, check installation and reseat modules. Ensure they are placed in the correct, matched slots for dual-channel operation."
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Memory Installation CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.2
Question #56
A technician observes slow startup times on a laptop.
Which of the following is most likely causing the issue?
- A . HDD
- B . RAM
- C . NIC
- D . BIOS
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A hard disk drive (HDD), especially if it’s older or nearly full, is the most common cause of slow startup times in laptops. HDDs are much slower than SSDs and can significantly bottleneck the boot process.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.1 C Troubleshoot common hardware problems:
“A slow startup or sluggish system performance is commonly due to a failing or fragmented hard disk drive (HDD). Replacing with an SSD can greatly improve boot times and overall system responsiveness.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Troubleshooting PC Hardware CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.1
A
Explanation:
A hard disk drive (HDD), especially if it’s older or nearly full, is the most common cause of slow startup times in laptops. HDDs are much slower than SSDs and can significantly bottleneck the boot process.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.1 C Troubleshoot common hardware problems:
“A slow startup or sluggish system performance is commonly due to a failing or fragmented hard disk drive (HDD). Replacing with an SSD can greatly improve boot times and overall system responsiveness.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Troubleshooting PC Hardware CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.1
Question #57
A user wants to print files from an overseas office using a shared network folder. The user’s laptop has no public-facing internet connectivity.
Which of the following can be used to print from the shared network folder?
- A . ADF
- B . USB
- C . PCL
- D . SMB
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
SMB (Server Message Block) is a protocol used to access files and printers over a network, including across shared network folders. It enables the user to access and print files stored remotely on a shared directory.
Option A (ADF): Automatic Document Feeder ― hardware, not a network protocol.
Option B (USB): Used for direct physical connections, not for printing over networks.
Option C (PCL): Printer Command Language ― relates to printer drivers, not file sharing or access.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective
Reference: Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, install and configure printers.
D
Explanation:
SMB (Server Message Block) is a protocol used to access files and printers over a network, including across shared network folders. It enables the user to access and print files stored remotely on a shared directory.
Option A (ADF): Automatic Document Feeder ― hardware, not a network protocol.
Option B (USB): Used for direct physical connections, not for printing over networks.
Option C (PCL): Printer Command Language ― relates to printer drivers, not file sharing or access.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective
Reference: Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, install and configure printers.
Question #58
Which of the following ports should a technician disable to increase the security of remote connectivity?
- A . 22
- B . 23
- C . 25
- D . 53
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Port 23 is used by Telnet, an unencrypted remote connection protocol that poses significant security risks. Disabling Telnet and using secure alternatives like SSH (port 22) is best practice.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.1 C Common ports and protocols: "Port 23 (Telnet) provides unencrypted remote access and should be disabled to increase security. Use SSH (port 22) for secure remote connections."
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Ports and Protocols CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.1
B
Explanation:
Port 23 is used by Telnet, an unencrypted remote connection protocol that poses significant security risks. Disabling Telnet and using secure alternatives like SSH (port 22) is best practice.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.1 C Common ports and protocols: "Port 23 (Telnet) provides unencrypted remote access and should be disabled to increase security. Use SSH (port 22) for secure remote connections."
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Ports and Protocols CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.1
Question #59
A technician wants to upgrade a computer to a new Windows version. The Windows Upgrade Advisor states that the computer is not compatible with the new Windows version due to a lack of TPM 2.0 support.
Which of the following should the technician do next?
- A . Enable the module in the UEFI BIOS.
- B . Install an HSM in the computer.
- C . Perform a clean Install of the new Windows version.
- D . Implement BitLocker on the computer.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
TPM 2.0 (Trusted Platform Module) is often disabled by default in the UEFI BIOS. Enabling it is necessary to meet the requirements for certain Windows installations, including Windows 11.
Why Not B (Install an HSM): A Hardware Security Module (HSM) is a separate device used for cryptographic functions and is not related to TPM on the motherboard.
Why Not C (Perform a clean install): A clean installation will not bypass the TPM 2.0 requirement.
Why Not D (Implement BitLocker): BitLocker requires TPM but does not resolve its absence or lack of activation.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.4, BIOS/UEFI configuration.
A
Explanation:
TPM 2.0 (Trusted Platform Module) is often disabled by default in the UEFI BIOS. Enabling it is necessary to meet the requirements for certain Windows installations, including Windows 11.
Why Not B (Install an HSM): A Hardware Security Module (HSM) is a separate device used for cryptographic functions and is not related to TPM on the motherboard.
Why Not C (Perform a clean install): A clean installation will not bypass the TPM 2.0 requirement.
Why Not D (Implement BitLocker): BitLocker requires TPM but does not resolve its absence or lack of activation.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.4, BIOS/UEFI configuration.
Question #60
An IT specialist sets up a new computer for a user who requires a high-end video card and the fastest hard drive possible.
Which of the following connectors should the specialist verify are available on the motherboard? (Select two).
- A . Molex
- B . NVMe
- C . SATA
- D . FireWire
- E . USB-C
- F . PCIe
Correct Answer: B,F
B,F
Explanation:
PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) is required for high-end video cards. NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) utilizes the M.2 or PCIe interface for the fastest SSD performance.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.2 C Motherboard expansion slots and storage interfaces:
“High-end video cards require a PCIe slot, while NVMe drives use M.2 (PCIe) slots for the highest
data transfer rates.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Motherboard & Storage CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.2
B,F
Explanation:
PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) is required for high-end video cards. NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) utilizes the M.2 or PCIe interface for the fastest SSD performance.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.2 C Motherboard expansion slots and storage interfaces:
“High-end video cards require a PCIe slot, while NVMe drives use M.2 (PCIe) slots for the highest
data transfer rates.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Motherboard & Storage CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.2