Practice Free 220-1201 Exam Online Questions
Question #111
Which cloud characteristic allows local folders to contain updates made by users or other devices?
- A . Network share
- B . Synchronization
- C . Availability
- D . Metered utilization
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Cloud storage platforms―such as OneDrive, Google Drive, and Dropbox―use synchronization to ensure that files updated on one device automatically update on all connected devices. CompTIA A+ defines synchronization as a key cloud characteristic that keeps local folders and cloud-stored versions consistent, enabling seamless multi-device collaboration.
Synchronization allows users to:
Modify files offline and have them sync once online
Access identical data on laptops, desktops, and mobile devices
Ensure real-time updates across multiple users or clients
Maintain version consistency and conflict resolution
A network share (A) is local to an organization and does not automatically sync across devices. Availability (C) relates to uptime and reliability, not file updates. Metered utilization (D) refers to cloud billing models where usage is tracked, not data syncing.
Thus, synchronization is the capability that ensures local folders update dynamically whenever changes occur.
B
Explanation:
Cloud storage platforms―such as OneDrive, Google Drive, and Dropbox―use synchronization to ensure that files updated on one device automatically update on all connected devices. CompTIA A+ defines synchronization as a key cloud characteristic that keeps local folders and cloud-stored versions consistent, enabling seamless multi-device collaboration.
Synchronization allows users to:
Modify files offline and have them sync once online
Access identical data on laptops, desktops, and mobile devices
Ensure real-time updates across multiple users or clients
Maintain version consistency and conflict resolution
A network share (A) is local to an organization and does not automatically sync across devices. Availability (C) relates to uptime and reliability, not file updates. Metered utilization (D) refers to cloud billing models where usage is tracked, not data syncing.
Thus, synchronization is the capability that ensures local folders update dynamically whenever changes occur.
Question #112
A local bank is designing its new infrastructure blueprint.
Which of the following RAID types offers double parity?
- A . RAID 0
- B . RAID 1
- C . RAID 5
- D . RAID 6
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
RAID 6 is the RAID level that provides double parity, allowing the system to tolerate the failure of two disks simultaneously without data loss. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) storage and RAID objectives, RAID 6 improves fault tolerance by storing two independent parity blocks across all disks in the array.
RAID 0 provides no parity or redundancy and focuses only on performance through striping. RAID 1 uses mirroring, duplicating data across two drives but does not use parity. RAID 5 uses single parity, allowing recovery from only one failed drive.
For environments such as a local bank, where data integrity and availability are critical, RAID 6 is commonly preferred due to its higher fault tolerance compared to RAID 5. Although RAID 6 has slightly lower write performance due to the additional parity calculation, the increased resilience makes it suitable for mission-critical systems.
CompTIA highlights RAID 6 as a common enterprise solution when both redundancy and reliability are priorities.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide C RAID Levels and Storage Technologies
D
Explanation:
RAID 6 is the RAID level that provides double parity, allowing the system to tolerate the failure of two disks simultaneously without data loss. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) storage and RAID objectives, RAID 6 improves fault tolerance by storing two independent parity blocks across all disks in the array.
RAID 0 provides no parity or redundancy and focuses only on performance through striping. RAID 1 uses mirroring, duplicating data across two drives but does not use parity. RAID 5 uses single parity, allowing recovery from only one failed drive.
For environments such as a local bank, where data integrity and availability are critical, RAID 6 is commonly preferred due to its higher fault tolerance compared to RAID 5. Although RAID 6 has slightly lower write performance due to the additional parity calculation, the increased resilience makes it suitable for mission-critical systems.
CompTIA highlights RAID 6 as a common enterprise solution when both redundancy and reliability are priorities.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide C RAID Levels and Storage Technologies
Question #113
Each lime a user ties to print, the paper becomes stuck at the last stage of the print job and the user has to poll me paper out of the printer.
Which of the following is me most likely cause?
- A . Rollers
- B . Tray assembly
- C . Toner
- D . Printhead
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
If paper gets stuck at the last stage of printing, the rollers responsible for moving the paper through the printer are likely worn out or dirty.
Why Not B (Tray assembly): The tray assembly manages paper loading, not feeding during the print process.
Why Not C (Toner): Toner is unrelated to paper jams.
Why Not D (Printhead): Printheads manage ink/toner distribution, not paper movement.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 4.6, printer troubleshooting.
A
Explanation:
If paper gets stuck at the last stage of printing, the rollers responsible for moving the paper through the printer are likely worn out or dirty.
Why Not B (Tray assembly): The tray assembly manages paper loading, not feeding during the print process.
Why Not C (Toner): Toner is unrelated to paper jams.
Why Not D (Printhead): Printheads manage ink/toner distribution, not paper movement.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 4.6, printer troubleshooting.
Question #114
Which of the following DHCP components allows a device to be assigned the same IP address anytime it is connected to the network?
- A . Exclusion
- B . Reservation
- C . Lease
- D . Scope
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A DHCP reservation ensures a specific device always receives the same IP address from the DHCP server whenever it requests an address. The reservation is typically created by associating the device’s MAC address with a chosen IP address inside the DHCP scope. When that device connects and performs the DHCP process, the server recognizes the MAC address and offers the reserved IP instead of assigning the next available dynamic address. This is commonly used for devices that benefit from consistent addressing (for example, printers, servers, or network appliances) while still centrally managing addressing through DHCP rather than configuring a manual static IP on the endpoint.
An exclusion is the opposite idea: it defines a range of IP addresses within a scope that the DHCP server will not hand out (often because those addresses are used for statically assigned devices). A lease is the time period that a dynamically assigned IP address is valid before it must be renewed; it does not guarantee the same IP every time. A scope is the overall pool/range of IP addresses and DHCP options (gateway, DNS, etc.) available for a given subnet. Therefore, the component that guarantees the same IP is a reservation.
B
Explanation:
A DHCP reservation ensures a specific device always receives the same IP address from the DHCP server whenever it requests an address. The reservation is typically created by associating the device’s MAC address with a chosen IP address inside the DHCP scope. When that device connects and performs the DHCP process, the server recognizes the MAC address and offers the reserved IP instead of assigning the next available dynamic address. This is commonly used for devices that benefit from consistent addressing (for example, printers, servers, or network appliances) while still centrally managing addressing through DHCP rather than configuring a manual static IP on the endpoint.
An exclusion is the opposite idea: it defines a range of IP addresses within a scope that the DHCP server will not hand out (often because those addresses are used for statically assigned devices). A lease is the time period that a dynamically assigned IP address is valid before it must be renewed; it does not guarantee the same IP every time. A scope is the overall pool/range of IP addresses and DHCP options (gateway, DNS, etc.) available for a given subnet. Therefore, the component that guarantees the same IP is a reservation.
Question #115
Which of the following can carry data and electricity to network devices? (Select two).
- A . Router
- B . Injector
- C . Cable modem
- D . Access point
- E . PoE
- F . Unmanaged switch
Correct Answer: B,E
B,E
Explanation:
PoE (Power over Ethernet) allows both data and electrical power to be delivered over the same Ethernet cable. A PoE injector adds power to Ethernet cables for devices that need it.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.2 C Networking hardware:
“Power over Ethernet (PoE) technology and PoE injectors enable both power and data transmission to compatible network devices like access points and IP cameras.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Network Hardware CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.2
B,E
Explanation:
PoE (Power over Ethernet) allows both data and electrical power to be delivered over the same Ethernet cable. A PoE injector adds power to Ethernet cables for devices that need it.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.2 C Networking hardware:
“Power over Ethernet (PoE) technology and PoE injectors enable both power and data transmission to compatible network devices like access points and IP cameras.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Network Hardware CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.2
Question #116
A user’s tablet screen is unresponsive to touch. The device does not show any signs of physical damage, and a system reset does not resolve the issue.
Which of the following should a technician replace?
- A . Battery
- B . Motherboard
- C . LCD screen
- D . Digitizer
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A tablet’s display is made of two key parts that work together: the LCD (or OLED) that shows the image, and the digitizer that detects touch input. If the screen image looks normal but the device does not respond to taps, swipes, or gestures, the most likely failed component is the digitizer (or the digitizer layer/cable). The digitizer is a transparent sensor grid that converts touch into signals the system can interpret. When it fails, the tablet may still power on and show a clear picture, but touch will not register at all or will behave erratically.
Because the device shows no physical damage and a system reset does not fix the issue, this points away from a software glitch and toward a hardware input failure. Replacing the LCD screen is typically indicated when you see display problems such as no image, distorted colors, flickering, dead pixels, or backlight issues―not purely touch failure. A battery problem would affect power/charging, not touch responsiveness. A motherboard replacement is far more invasive and not the most likely first hardware fix for a touch-only failure. Therefore, the correct component to replace is the digitizer.
D
Explanation:
A tablet’s display is made of two key parts that work together: the LCD (or OLED) that shows the image, and the digitizer that detects touch input. If the screen image looks normal but the device does not respond to taps, swipes, or gestures, the most likely failed component is the digitizer (or the digitizer layer/cable). The digitizer is a transparent sensor grid that converts touch into signals the system can interpret. When it fails, the tablet may still power on and show a clear picture, but touch will not register at all or will behave erratically.
Because the device shows no physical damage and a system reset does not fix the issue, this points away from a software glitch and toward a hardware input failure. Replacing the LCD screen is typically indicated when you see display problems such as no image, distorted colors, flickering, dead pixels, or backlight issues―not purely touch failure. A battery problem would affect power/charging, not touch responsiveness. A motherboard replacement is far more invasive and not the most likely first hardware fix for a touch-only failure. Therefore, the correct component to replace is the digitizer.
Question #117
A technician is troubleshooting a desktop PC that is plugged into a UPS. The PC loses the system date/time after every power outage.
Which of the following should the technician do to resolve the issue? (Select two).
- A . Run a BIOS update.
- B . Swap out the RAM.
- C . Disable NTP in the OS.
- D . Repair the backup power source.
- E . Replace the CMOS battery
- F . Install a surge protector.
Correct Answer: D,E
D,E
Explanation:
The system date/time is maintained by the CMOS battery when the PC is powered off. If this battery fails, time resets will occur. Additionally, since the system is connected to a UPS, ensuring the UPS is functioning correctly (i.e., the backup power source) is essential.
Reference: "CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide" by Quentin Docter C Chapter 1, page 40.
D,E
Explanation:
The system date/time is maintained by the CMOS battery when the PC is powered off. If this battery fails, time resets will occur. Additionally, since the system is connected to a UPS, ensuring the UPS is functioning correctly (i.e., the backup power source) is essential.
Reference: "CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide" by Quentin Docter C Chapter 1, page 40.
Question #118
Which of the following systems most likely contains ECC memory?
- A . A high-end gaming console
- B . A file server
- C . A smartphone
- D . A laptop
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Error-Correcting Code (ECC) memory is designed to detect and correct single-bit memory errors, increasing system reliability and data integrity. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) hardware and memory objectives, ECC memory is most commonly used in servers and enterprise-grade systems where uptime and data accuracy are critical.
A file server is responsible for storing, managing, and serving data to many users simultaneously. Memory errors in such systems could lead to data corruption, crashes, or security issues. For this reason, servers frequently use ECC memory in combination with server-class CPUs and motherboards that support error correction.
High-end gaming consoles prioritize performance and cost efficiency rather than fault tolerance, and they do not use ECC memory. Smartphones rely on low-power mobile RAM without error correction, and laptops typically use non-ECC memory unless they are specialized workstation-class systems, which is not indicated in this question.
CompTIA emphasizes that ECC memory is associated with mission-critical environments, particularly servers and enterprise systems, making a file server the most appropriate answer.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide C RAM Types, ECC Memory, and Server Hardware
B
Explanation:
Error-Correcting Code (ECC) memory is designed to detect and correct single-bit memory errors, increasing system reliability and data integrity. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) hardware and memory objectives, ECC memory is most commonly used in servers and enterprise-grade systems where uptime and data accuracy are critical.
A file server is responsible for storing, managing, and serving data to many users simultaneously. Memory errors in such systems could lead to data corruption, crashes, or security issues. For this reason, servers frequently use ECC memory in combination with server-class CPUs and motherboards that support error correction.
High-end gaming consoles prioritize performance and cost efficiency rather than fault tolerance, and they do not use ECC memory. Smartphones rely on low-power mobile RAM without error correction, and laptops typically use non-ECC memory unless they are specialized workstation-class systems, which is not indicated in this question.
CompTIA emphasizes that ECC memory is associated with mission-critical environments, particularly servers and enterprise systems, making a file server the most appropriate answer.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide C RAM Types, ECC Memory, and Server Hardware
Question #119
A company will retire a legacy application in one year but wants to decommission the physical environment now.
Which migration method is best?
- A . Relocating the server to a colocated data center
- B . Performing a physical-to-virtual conversion and hosting on IaaS
- C . Deploying all components using PaaS
- D . Taking a backup and shutting down the server
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
CompTIA A+ emphasizes virtualization as an ideal solution during system phase-out or transition periods. The correct approach here is a P2V (physical-to-virtual) conversion and hosting the server in an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) environment. This removes the need for physical hardware while still keeping the application operational for its final year. IaaS provides full control over OS and applications, making it suitable for legacy systems that cannot be rewritten.
Colocation (Option A) still requires physical hardware. PaaS (Option C) is inappropriate because PaaS requires rewriting or replatforming the application. Shutting down the server after a backup (Option D) makes the application immediately unusable.
Thus, the best method is to convert to a virtual machine and host it on IaaS.
B
Explanation:
CompTIA A+ emphasizes virtualization as an ideal solution during system phase-out or transition periods. The correct approach here is a P2V (physical-to-virtual) conversion and hosting the server in an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) environment. This removes the need for physical hardware while still keeping the application operational for its final year. IaaS provides full control over OS and applications, making it suitable for legacy systems that cannot be rewritten.
Colocation (Option A) still requires physical hardware. PaaS (Option C) is inappropriate because PaaS requires rewriting or replatforming the application. Shutting down the server after a backup (Option D) makes the application immediately unusable.
Thus, the best method is to convert to a virtual machine and host it on IaaS.
Question #120
A technician installs an external camera on a user’s laptop. When loading meeting software, the video preview shows a blank screen.
What should the technician do next?
- A . Select the correct camera source.
- B . Replace the camera.
- C . Update the camera software.
- D . Check the camera cable.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Most meeting or conferencing applications default to the built-in laptop camera unless manually changed. When an external camera is connected, the software may continue to use the default device, resulting in a blank preview, especially if the internal camera is disabled, covered, or malfunctioning. CompTIA A+ stresses verifying correct device selection when peripherals are installed.
Selecting the correct camera source is a quick, non-invasive test that resolves the issue in the majority of cases. The technician should open the application’s video settings and choose the external webcam from the camera dropdown menu.
Replacing the camera (B) is premature without confirming configuration. Updating software (C) is beneficial but will not resolve a simple input-selection error. Checking the cable (D) is a valid step if the preview still fails after selecting the device.
Thus, the correct next step is to select the proper camera source.
A
Explanation:
Most meeting or conferencing applications default to the built-in laptop camera unless manually changed. When an external camera is connected, the software may continue to use the default device, resulting in a blank preview, especially if the internal camera is disabled, covered, or malfunctioning. CompTIA A+ stresses verifying correct device selection when peripherals are installed.
Selecting the correct camera source is a quick, non-invasive test that resolves the issue in the majority of cases. The technician should open the application’s video settings and choose the external webcam from the camera dropdown menu.
Replacing the camera (B) is premature without confirming configuration. Updating software (C) is beneficial but will not resolve a simple input-selection error. Checking the cable (D) is a valid step if the preview still fails after selecting the device.
Thus, the correct next step is to select the proper camera source.