Practice Free 220-1201 Exam Online Questions
Question #91
A user reports that scanned or copied pages from an MFP show vertical lines down the page. The printer processes print jobs correctly.
What should the technician do?
- A . Replace the transfer roller
- B . Remove the pickup rollers
- C . Clean the glass bed
- D . Apply a maintenance kit
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
CompTIA A+ teaches that vertical lines on scanned or copied documents but not printed documents indicate a dirty or smudged scanner glass or ADF glass strip. Dust, ink smears, or debris create a line because the scanning sensor repeatedly passes over the same contaminated area.
If printing works normally, internal printer components such as the transfer roller or pickup rollers are not at fault. Maintenance kits apply to internal wear components like rollers, belts, or fusers not scanning artifacts.
Cleaning the scanner glass or ADF strip directly addresses this common problem. The A+ exam frequently includes troubleshooting questions about print vs. scan artifacts, and this scenario is a classic example.
Therefore, the correct solution is to clean the glass bed (or ADF strip).
C
Explanation:
CompTIA A+ teaches that vertical lines on scanned or copied documents but not printed documents indicate a dirty or smudged scanner glass or ADF glass strip. Dust, ink smears, or debris create a line because the scanning sensor repeatedly passes over the same contaminated area.
If printing works normally, internal printer components such as the transfer roller or pickup rollers are not at fault. Maintenance kits apply to internal wear components like rollers, belts, or fusers not scanning artifacts.
Cleaning the scanner glass or ADF strip directly addresses this common problem. The A+ exam frequently includes troubleshooting questions about print vs. scan artifacts, and this scenario is a classic example.
Therefore, the correct solution is to clean the glass bed (or ADF strip).
Question #92
A financial institution needs a secure way to protect encryption keys used for unlocking chips on its credit cards.
Which of the following should the institution use?
- A . TLS
- B . AMD
- C . HSM
- D . ARM
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A Hardware Security Module (HSM) securely manages cryptographic keys, including those used to protect credit card chips.
Why Not A (TLS): TLS secures data in transit, not encryption key storage.
Why Not B (AMD): AMD refers to processors, not security modules.
Why Not D (ARM): ARM is a processor architecture, not a cryptographic security solution.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.5, cryptographic hardware.
C
Explanation:
A Hardware Security Module (HSM) securely manages cryptographic keys, including those used to protect credit card chips.
Why Not A (TLS): TLS secures data in transit, not encryption key storage.
Why Not B (AMD): AMD refers to processors, not security modules.
Why Not D (ARM): ARM is a processor architecture, not a cryptographic security solution.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.5, cryptographic hardware.
Question #93
A small company recently added VoIP through its ISP. Users report intermittent call quality issues during peak hours.
Which of the following steps should the IT administrator take to solve the issue?
- A . Configure the VLAN to split services.
- B . Route calls through a gigabit port.
- C . Install a shielded network cable.
- D . Increase the VoIP bit rate.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation
CompTIA A+ VoIP and network performance topics stress the importance of Quality of Service (QoS) and traffic separation.
Creating a separate VLAN for VoIP:
Reduces congestion
Prioritizes voice traffic
Prevents voice packets from competing with data traffic
Improves latency, jitter, and packet loss issues during peak hours
This directly fixes intermittent VoIP quality issues.
Why the other options are incorrect
B. Route calls through a gigabit port C Internal port speed is not the bottleneck; congestion is.
C. Shielded cable C Does not solve bandwidth or QoS issues.
D. Increase bit rate C Makes the problem worse, requiring more bandwidth.
A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation
CompTIA A+ VoIP and network performance topics stress the importance of Quality of Service (QoS) and traffic separation.
Creating a separate VLAN for VoIP:
Reduces congestion
Prioritizes voice traffic
Prevents voice packets from competing with data traffic
Improves latency, jitter, and packet loss issues during peak hours
This directly fixes intermittent VoIP quality issues.
Why the other options are incorrect
B. Route calls through a gigabit port C Internal port speed is not the bottleneck; congestion is.
C. Shielded cable C Does not solve bandwidth or QoS issues.
D. Increase bit rate C Makes the problem worse, requiring more bandwidth.
Question #94
Which of the following best characterizes the use of a virtual machine as a sandbox?
- A . Run an application on multiple workstations without installation.
- B . Explore how an application behaves in a different environment
- C . Migrate a currently used legacy application from physical to virtual
- D . Create a firewall where the sandbox acts as a perimeter network.
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A sandbox in virtualization allows testing an application in an isolated environment to observe its behavior without affecting the host system.
Why Not A (Run an application on multiple workstations): This describes application virtualization, not sandboxing.
Why Not C (Migrate a legacy application): This is about virtualization for legacy support, not testing.
Why Not D (Create a firewall): A firewall does not act as a sandbox for application testing.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 4.2, virtualization and sandboxing.
B
Explanation:
A sandbox in virtualization allows testing an application in an isolated environment to observe its behavior without affecting the host system.
Why Not A (Run an application on multiple workstations): This describes application virtualization, not sandboxing.
Why Not C (Migrate a legacy application): This is about virtualization for legacy support, not testing.
Why Not D (Create a firewall): A firewall does not act as a sandbox for application testing.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 4.2, virtualization and sandboxing.
Question #95
A help desk technician inspects a laptop keyboard because a single key has stopped working. The technician checks the keyboard for debris.
Which of the following actions should the technician do next to troubleshoot the issue cost-effectively?
- A . Replace the keyboard.
- B . Replace the key switch
- C . Replace the circuit board.
- D . Replace the keycap
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
If only one key is not functioning and debris has been checked, replacing the individual keycap is the most cost-effective next step. It’s a simple, low-cost option before considering more extensive repairs like replacing the entire keyboard.
Reference: "CompTIA A+ Complete Practice Tests" by Jeff T. Parker C Chapter 1, Question 10, page 8.
B
Explanation:
If only one key is not functioning and debris has been checked, replacing the individual keycap is the most cost-effective next step. It’s a simple, low-cost option before considering more extensive repairs like replacing the entire keyboard.
Reference: "CompTIA A+ Complete Practice Tests" by Jeff T. Parker C Chapter 1, Question 10, page 8.
Question #96
An IT specialist is setting up a new, custom computer. The specialist wants to minimize the number of power cables to keep the internal components organized and uncluttered.
Which of the following power supply types should the specialist use?
- A . Modular
- B . Redundant
- C . Linear
- D . External
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A modular power supply allows the user to connect only the cables needed, reducing clutter and improving organization inside the case.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.3 C Power supplies:
“Modular power supplies provide detachable cables, allowing users to use only the required connections for a neater build.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Power Supplies CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.3
A
Explanation:
A modular power supply allows the user to connect only the cables needed, reducing clutter and improving organization inside the case.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.3 C Power supplies:
“Modular power supplies provide detachable cables, allowing users to use only the required connections for a neater build.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Power Supplies CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.3
Question #97
A major retailer is moving its online shopping website to the cloud and wants to expand its server resources as needed during busier shopping days.
Which of the following should the retailer consider?
- A . Location
- B . Elasticity
- C . Availability
- D . Multitenancy
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Elasticity in cloud computing refers to the ability to automatically scale resources up or down based on demand, making it ideal for businesses with fluctuating workloads.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 C Cloud characteristics:
“Elasticity allows cloud customers to quickly and automatically scale computing resources in response to changing demand.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud Concepts CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7
B
Explanation:
Elasticity in cloud computing refers to the ability to automatically scale resources up or down based on demand, making it ideal for businesses with fluctuating workloads.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 C Cloud characteristics:
“Elasticity allows cloud customers to quickly and automatically scale computing resources in response to changing demand.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud Concepts CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7
Question #98
A thief stole a company phone and successfully extracted confidential company information from the device.
Which of the following should have been used to prevent the extraction?
- A . GPS
- B . EPS
- C . eSIM
- D . MDM
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
MDM (Mobile Device Management) enforces security policies, such as encryption, remote wipe, and access control. It could have remotely wiped the device or locked it down to prevent data theft.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 Official Study Guide, Section: Mobile Device Security MDM tools provide remote wipe and security policy enforcement, essential for protecting mobile data.
D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
MDM (Mobile Device Management) enforces security policies, such as encryption, remote wipe, and access control. It could have remotely wiped the device or locked it down to prevent data theft.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 Official Study Guide, Section: Mobile Device Security MDM tools provide remote wipe and security policy enforcement, essential for protecting mobile data.
Question #99
A user replaces their PC power supply and connects it to the components, but the PC fails to start.
What is the most likely cause?
- A . The computer requires additional RAM
- B . The wattage is insufficient
- C . The 4-pin CPU power connector is not connected
- D . The PSU only works in redundant setups
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Modern motherboards require both the 24-pin ATX connector and a 4-pin or 8-pin CPU power connector. If the CPU power connector is not attached, the motherboard will receive power but the system will not boot. CompTIA A+ specifically lists this as a common mistake after replacing a power supply.
Insufficient wattage may cause instability, but usually the system still attempts to start. RAM does not prevent power-on if missing; instead, the system produces beep codes. Redundant PSUs are used in servers, not standard desktops.
Therefore, the missing CPU power connector is the most likely cause, and this scenario reflects typical troubleshooting steps outlined in A+ hardware diagnostics.
C
Explanation:
Modern motherboards require both the 24-pin ATX connector and a 4-pin or 8-pin CPU power connector. If the CPU power connector is not attached, the motherboard will receive power but the system will not boot. CompTIA A+ specifically lists this as a common mistake after replacing a power supply.
Insufficient wattage may cause instability, but usually the system still attempts to start. RAM does not prevent power-on if missing; instead, the system produces beep codes. Redundant PSUs are used in servers, not standard desktops.
Therefore, the missing CPU power connector is the most likely cause, and this scenario reflects typical troubleshooting steps outlined in A+ hardware diagnostics.
Question #100
A technician upgrades a CPU heat sink with a higher-performing model. While stress testing the computer, the technician finds that the CPU temperatures have drastically increased.
Which of the following is most likely causing the issue?
- A . Decreased CPU voltage
- B . Higher fan RPM
- C . Airflow interruption
- D . Missing thermal paste
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Whenever a CPU heat sink is removed or replaced, thermal paste must be reapplied. Thermal paste fills microscopic gaps between the CPU heat spreader and the heat sink, ensuring efficient heat transfer. Without it, there is a significant air gap, which acts as an insulator, causing CPU temperatures to rise dramatically even under light load. CompTIA A+ stresses thermal compound application as a key step in CPU cooling installation.
The scenario indicates that temperatures increased drastically after upgrading to a better heat sink. A higher-performing heat sink should improve temperatures, not worsen them―unless a critical installation step was missed. Missing thermal paste is the most common cause of this symptom and easily explains the sudden overheating.
Decreased CPU voltage would lower temperatures, not raise them. Higher fan RPM increases cooling efficiency, not reduces it. Airflow interruption is possible but less likely in a simple heat sink upgrade scenario unless the technician installed the CPU cooler incorrectly; however, the most direct and common cause described by CompTIA is missing thermal paste.
Thus, D is the correct answer.
D
Explanation:
Whenever a CPU heat sink is removed or replaced, thermal paste must be reapplied. Thermal paste fills microscopic gaps between the CPU heat spreader and the heat sink, ensuring efficient heat transfer. Without it, there is a significant air gap, which acts as an insulator, causing CPU temperatures to rise dramatically even under light load. CompTIA A+ stresses thermal compound application as a key step in CPU cooling installation.
The scenario indicates that temperatures increased drastically after upgrading to a better heat sink. A higher-performing heat sink should improve temperatures, not worsen them―unless a critical installation step was missed. Missing thermal paste is the most common cause of this symptom and easily explains the sudden overheating.
Decreased CPU voltage would lower temperatures, not raise them. Higher fan RPM increases cooling efficiency, not reduces it. Airflow interruption is possible but less likely in a simple heat sink upgrade scenario unless the technician installed the CPU cooler incorrectly; however, the most direct and common cause described by CompTIA is missing thermal paste.
Thus, D is the correct answer.