Practice Free N10-009 Exam Online Questions
Question #71
A network administrator is configuring a network for a new site that will have 150 users. Within the next year, the site is expected to grow by ten users. Each user will have two IP addresses (one for a computer and one for a phone).
Which of the following classful IPv4 address ranges will be best-suited for the network?
- A . Class D
- B . Class B
- C . Class A
- D . Class C
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
• The total number of devices = (150 + 10) users × 2 IPs per user = 320 devices
• Class C (D) supports a maximum of 254 hosts (2^8 – 2), which is too small.
• Class B (B) supports 65,534 hosts (2^16 – 2), making it the best choice.
• Why not the other options?
• Class A (C): Supports millions of addresses, which is overkill for 320 devices.
• Class D (A): Used for multicast, not for device addressing.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) Official Guide C Chapter 7: IP Addressing and Subnetting
B
Explanation:
• The total number of devices = (150 + 10) users × 2 IPs per user = 320 devices
• Class C (D) supports a maximum of 254 hosts (2^8 – 2), which is too small.
• Class B (B) supports 65,534 hosts (2^16 – 2), making it the best choice.
• Why not the other options?
• Class A (C): Supports millions of addresses, which is overkill for 320 devices.
• Class D (A): Used for multicast, not for device addressing.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) Official Guide C Chapter 7: IP Addressing and Subnetting
Question #72
Which of the following requires network devices to be managed using a different set of IP addresses?
- A . Console
- B . Split tunnel
- C . Jump box
- D . Out of band
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Out-of-band (OOB) management refers to using a dedicated management network that is physically separate from the regular data network. This management network uses a different set of IP addresses to ensure that management traffic is isolated from user data traffic, providing a secure way to manage network devices even if the main network is down or compromised.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.
D
Explanation:
Out-of-band (OOB) management refers to using a dedicated management network that is physically separate from the regular data network. This management network uses a different set of IP addresses to ensure that management traffic is isolated from user data traffic, providing a secure way to manage network devices even if the main network is down or compromised.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.
Question #73
A junior network administrator is auditing the company network and notices incrementing input errors on a long-range microwave interface.
Which of the following is the most likely reason for the errors?
- A . The parabolic signal is misaligned.
- B . The omnidirectional signal is being jammed.
- C . The omnidirectional signal is not strong enough to receive properly.
- D . The parabolic signal uses improper routing protocols.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A misaligned parabolic antenna can cause a significant increase in input errors because the signal is not properly focused or directed towards the receiving antenna, resulting in poor reception and data corruption.
The document confirms:
“Misalignment of parabolic microwave antennas can lead to weak or incorrect signal reception, causing an increase in input errors and connectivity issues on the link.”
A
Explanation:
A misaligned parabolic antenna can cause a significant increase in input errors because the signal is not properly focused or directed towards the receiving antenna, resulting in poor reception and data corruption.
The document confirms:
“Misalignment of parabolic microwave antennas can lead to weak or incorrect signal reception, causing an increase in input errors and connectivity issues on the link.”
Question #74
After providing a username and password, a user must input a passcode from a phone application.
Which of the following authentication technologies is used in this example?
- A . SSO
- B . LDAP
- C . MFA
- D . SAML
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
This is an example of Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) because it requires:
Something you know (username/password)
Something you have (a phone-generated passcode)
Breakdown of Options:
C
Explanation:
This is an example of Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) because it requires:
Something you know (username/password)
Something you have (a phone-generated passcode)
Breakdown of Options:
Question #74
After providing a username and password, a user must input a passcode from a phone application.
Which of the following authentication technologies is used in this example?
- A . SSO
- B . LDAP
- C . MFA
- D . SAML
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
This is an example of Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) because it requires:
Something you know (username/password)
Something you have (a phone-generated passcode)
Breakdown of Options:
C
Explanation:
This is an example of Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) because it requires:
Something you know (username/password)
Something you have (a phone-generated passcode)
Breakdown of Options:
Question #76
Which of the following OSI model layers manages the exchange of HTTP information?
- A . Session
- B . Data link
- C . Network
- D . Application
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
HTTP is an application-layer protocol, so the OSI layer that manages the exchange of HTTP information is Layer 7 (Application). In the Network+ (N10-009) objectives, the OSI model is used to map common protocols to the layers where they operate. HTTP defines how web clients and servers format and exchange requests and responses (methods like GET/POST, headers, status codes, and message bodies). Those behaviors are part of the application services provided to end-user software such as web browsers, APIs, and web servers.
While HTTP relies on lower layers to function (for example, TCP at the Transport layer for reliable delivery and IP at the Network layer for addressing and routing), the protocol logic and meaning of the web transactions exist at the Application layer. The distractors do not fit: the Network layer handles IP routing, the Data Link layer handles frames and MAC addressing on local links, and the Session layer is associated with session establishment/management concepts but is not where HTTP is categorized for Network+ mapping. Therefore, Application is the correct answer.
D
Explanation:
HTTP is an application-layer protocol, so the OSI layer that manages the exchange of HTTP information is Layer 7 (Application). In the Network+ (N10-009) objectives, the OSI model is used to map common protocols to the layers where they operate. HTTP defines how web clients and servers format and exchange requests and responses (methods like GET/POST, headers, status codes, and message bodies). Those behaviors are part of the application services provided to end-user software such as web browsers, APIs, and web servers.
While HTTP relies on lower layers to function (for example, TCP at the Transport layer for reliable delivery and IP at the Network layer for addressing and routing), the protocol logic and meaning of the web transactions exist at the Application layer. The distractors do not fit: the Network layer handles IP routing, the Data Link layer handles frames and MAC addressing on local links, and the Session layer is associated with session establishment/management concepts but is not where HTTP is categorized for Network+ mapping. Therefore, Application is the correct answer.
Question #77
A media company is implementing a global streaming service.
Which of the following should the company apply to each regional point of presence in order to comply with local laws?
- A . ACL
- B . Port security
- C . Key management
- D . Content filtering
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
For a global streaming service, different countries and regions often have specific legal requirements about what content can be accessed (for example, age restrictions, prohibited material, censorship rules, or licensing constraints). To comply with these local laws at each regional point of presence (PoP), the company should implement content filtering. In Network+ security objectives, content filtering is a control used to allow, block, or restrict access to specific categories of content, URLs, applications, or media based on policy. Applied regionally, it supports geo-policy enforcement by ensuring that users served by a given PoP receive only content permitted in that jurisdiction.
An ACL primarily controls network traffic flows (permit/deny based on IPs, ports, and protocols). While ACLs can help block certain services, they are not designed to classify and regulate streaming media content in a way that aligns with legal content rules. Port security is a switch feature to restrict which devices can connect to a port (MAC-based controls) and is unrelated to regional compliance for streamed media. Key management concerns encryption key handling and protects confidentiality/integrity, but it does not determine which content is allowed in a region. Therefore, regional content filtering is the best match for meeting local legal requirements.
D
Explanation:
For a global streaming service, different countries and regions often have specific legal requirements about what content can be accessed (for example, age restrictions, prohibited material, censorship rules, or licensing constraints). To comply with these local laws at each regional point of presence (PoP), the company should implement content filtering. In Network+ security objectives, content filtering is a control used to allow, block, or restrict access to specific categories of content, URLs, applications, or media based on policy. Applied regionally, it supports geo-policy enforcement by ensuring that users served by a given PoP receive only content permitted in that jurisdiction.
An ACL primarily controls network traffic flows (permit/deny based on IPs, ports, and protocols). While ACLs can help block certain services, they are not designed to classify and regulate streaming media content in a way that aligns with legal content rules. Port security is a switch feature to restrict which devices can connect to a port (MAC-based controls) and is unrelated to regional compliance for streamed media. Key management concerns encryption key handling and protects confidentiality/integrity, but it does not determine which content is allowed in a region. Therefore, regional content filtering is the best match for meeting local legal requirements.
Question #78
A network administrator notices interference with industrial equipment in the 2.4GHz range.
Which of the following technologies would most likely mitigate this issue? (Select two).
- A . Mesh network
- B . 5GHz frequency
- C . Omnidirectional antenna
- D . Non-overlapping channel
- E . Captive portal
- F . Ad hoc network
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Understanding 2.4GHz Interference:
The 2.4GHz frequency range is commonly used by many devices, including Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, and various industrial equipment. This can lead to interference and degraded performance.
Mitigation Strategies:
5GHz Frequency:
The 5GHz frequency band offers more channels and less interference compared to the 2.4GHz band. Devices operating on 5GHz are less likely to encounter interference from other devices, including industrial equipment.
Non-overlapping Channels:
In the 2.4GHz band, using non-overlapping channels (such as channels 1, 6, and 11) can help reduce interference. Non-overlapping channels do not interfere with each other, providing clearer communication paths for Wi-Fi signals.
Why Other Options are Less Effective:
Mesh Network: While useful for extending network coverage, a mesh network does not inherently address interference issues.
Omnidirectional Antenna: This type of antenna broadcasts signals in all directions but does not mitigate interference.
Captive Portal: A web page that users must view and interact with before accessing a network, unrelated to frequency interference.
Ad Hoc Network: A decentralized wireless network that does not address interference issues directly.
Implementation:
Switch Wi-Fi devices to the 5GHz band if supported by the network infrastructure and client devices.
Configure Wi-Fi access points to use non-overlapping channels within the 2.4GHz band to minimize interference.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials on wireless networking and interference mitigation.
B
Explanation:
Understanding 2.4GHz Interference:
The 2.4GHz frequency range is commonly used by many devices, including Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, and various industrial equipment. This can lead to interference and degraded performance.
Mitigation Strategies:
5GHz Frequency:
The 5GHz frequency band offers more channels and less interference compared to the 2.4GHz band. Devices operating on 5GHz are less likely to encounter interference from other devices, including industrial equipment.
Non-overlapping Channels:
In the 2.4GHz band, using non-overlapping channels (such as channels 1, 6, and 11) can help reduce interference. Non-overlapping channels do not interfere with each other, providing clearer communication paths for Wi-Fi signals.
Why Other Options are Less Effective:
Mesh Network: While useful for extending network coverage, a mesh network does not inherently address interference issues.
Omnidirectional Antenna: This type of antenna broadcasts signals in all directions but does not mitigate interference.
Captive Portal: A web page that users must view and interact with before accessing a network, unrelated to frequency interference.
Ad Hoc Network: A decentralized wireless network that does not address interference issues directly.
Implementation:
Switch Wi-Fi devices to the 5GHz band if supported by the network infrastructure and client devices.
Configure Wi-Fi access points to use non-overlapping channels within the 2.4GHz band to minimize interference.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials on wireless networking and interference mitigation.
Question #79
A network administrator needs to connect two routers in a point-to-point configuration and conserve IP space.
Which of the following subnets should the administrator use?
- A . 724
- B . /26
- C . /28
- D . /30
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Using a /30 subnet mask is the most efficient way to conserve IP space for a point-to-point connection between two routers. A /30 subnet provides four IP addresses, two of which can be assigned to the router interfaces, one for the network address, and one for the broadcast address. This makes it ideal for point-to-point links where only two usable IP addresses are needed.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials and subnetting principles.
D
Explanation:
Using a /30 subnet mask is the most efficient way to conserve IP space for a point-to-point connection between two routers. A /30 subnet provides four IP addresses, two of which can be assigned to the router interfaces, one for the network address, and one for the broadcast address. This makes it ideal for point-to-point links where only two usable IP addresses are needed.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials and subnetting principles.
Question #80
After extremely high temperatures cause a power outage, the servers automatically shut down, even though the UPSs for the servers still have hours of battery life.
Which of the following should a technician recommend?
- A . Include backup power for air-conditioning units
- B . Configure door locks to automatically lock during power outages
- C . Increase UPS battery size
- D . Add an IoT-enabled thermostat
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Servers shut down due to overheating, not loss of electrical power. Although UPS units had battery life, without cooling systems (HVAC/air conditioning) running on backup power, server rooms overheated. Backup power for air-conditioning is essential in data center design.
B. Door locks are unrelated to server shutdown.
C. Increasing UPS capacity won’t help cooling.
D. IoT thermostats may monitor temperature but won’t prevent overheating.
Reference (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):
Domain: Network Infrastructure ― Environmental controls, power redundancy, HVAC systems.
A
Explanation:
Servers shut down due to overheating, not loss of electrical power. Although UPS units had battery life, without cooling systems (HVAC/air conditioning) running on backup power, server rooms overheated. Backup power for air-conditioning is essential in data center design.
B. Door locks are unrelated to server shutdown.
C. Increasing UPS capacity won’t help cooling.
D. IoT thermostats may monitor temperature but won’t prevent overheating.
Reference (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):
Domain: Network Infrastructure ― Environmental controls, power redundancy, HVAC systems.