Practice Free N10-009 Exam Online Questions
Question #111
Which of the following technologies is the best choice to listen for requests and distribute user traffic across web servers?
- A . Router
- B . Switch
- C . Firewall
- D . Load balancer
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A load balancer is designed to distribute user requests across multiple servers to ensure high availability and performance.
Breakdown of Options:
D
Explanation:
A load balancer is designed to distribute user requests across multiple servers to ensure high availability and performance.
Breakdown of Options:
Question #112
A network administrator wants to configure a backup route in case the primary route fails. A dynamic routing protocol is not installed on the router.
Which of the following routing features should the administrator choose to accomplish this task?
- A . Neighbor adjacency
- B . Link state flooding
- C . Administrative distance
- D . Hop count
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Introduction to Administrative Distance
Administrative distance (AD) is a value used by routers to rank routes from different routing protocols. AD represents the trustworthiness of the source of the route. Lower AD values are more preferred. If a router has multiple routes to a destination from different sources, it will choose the route with the lowest AD.
Static Routes and Backup Routes
When a dynamic routing protocol is not used, static routes can be employed. Static routes are manually configured routes. To ensure a backup route, multiple static routes to the same destination can be configured with different AD values.
Configuring Static Routes with Administrative Distance
The primary route is configured with a lower AD value, making it the preferred route. The backup route is configured with a higher AD value. In the event of the primary route failure, the router will then use the backup route.
Example Configuration:
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ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.0.1 1
ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.0.2 10
In the above example, 192.168.1.0/24 is the destination network.
C
Explanation:
Introduction to Administrative Distance
Administrative distance (AD) is a value used by routers to rank routes from different routing protocols. AD represents the trustworthiness of the source of the route. Lower AD values are more preferred. If a router has multiple routes to a destination from different sources, it will choose the route with the lowest AD.
Static Routes and Backup Routes
When a dynamic routing protocol is not used, static routes can be employed. Static routes are manually configured routes. To ensure a backup route, multiple static routes to the same destination can be configured with different AD values.
Configuring Static Routes with Administrative Distance
The primary route is configured with a lower AD value, making it the preferred route. The backup route is configured with a higher AD value. In the event of the primary route failure, the router will then use the backup route.
Example Configuration:
plaintext
Copy code
ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.0.1 1
ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.0.2 10
In the above example, 192.168.1.0/24 is the destination network.
Question #113
Which of the following is the most cost-efficient way to host email services?
- A . PaaS
- B . IaaS
- C . VPC
- D . SaaS
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The correct answer is SaaS (Software as a Service). According to the CompTIA Network+ N10-009 objectives, SaaS is the most cost-efficient cloud model for hosting common business applications such as email, collaboration tools, and productivity suites. With SaaS, the cloud provider manages all infrastructure, operating systems, application software, security updates, and maintenance, significantly reducing administrative overhead and operational costs.
Email services are a prime example of workloads that benefit from SaaS solutions such as Microsoft 365 or Google Workspace. Organizations pay a subscription-based fee, typically per user, and avoid expenses related to server hardware, licensing, patching, backups, redundancy, and disaster recovery. This makes SaaS far more economical than deploying and maintaining email servers internally or in lower-level cloud models.
IaaS requires the organization to manage virtual machines, operating systems, email server software, and security configurations, which increases both cost and complexity. PaaS simplifies application development but is not designed for hosting ready-made services like email platforms. A VPC (Virtual Private Cloud) is a networking construct, not a service model, and does not inherently provide email
hosting functionality.
The Network+ objectives emphasize selecting cloud service models based on cost, management responsibility, and operational efficiency. For standardized services like email, SaaS offers the lowest total cost of ownership and the least administrative burden, making it the best and most cost-effective choice.
D
Explanation:
The correct answer is SaaS (Software as a Service). According to the CompTIA Network+ N10-009 objectives, SaaS is the most cost-efficient cloud model for hosting common business applications such as email, collaboration tools, and productivity suites. With SaaS, the cloud provider manages all infrastructure, operating systems, application software, security updates, and maintenance, significantly reducing administrative overhead and operational costs.
Email services are a prime example of workloads that benefit from SaaS solutions such as Microsoft 365 or Google Workspace. Organizations pay a subscription-based fee, typically per user, and avoid expenses related to server hardware, licensing, patching, backups, redundancy, and disaster recovery. This makes SaaS far more economical than deploying and maintaining email servers internally or in lower-level cloud models.
IaaS requires the organization to manage virtual machines, operating systems, email server software, and security configurations, which increases both cost and complexity. PaaS simplifies application development but is not designed for hosting ready-made services like email platforms. A VPC (Virtual Private Cloud) is a networking construct, not a service model, and does not inherently provide email
hosting functionality.
The Network+ objectives emphasize selecting cloud service models based on cost, management responsibility, and operational efficiency. For standardized services like email, SaaS offers the lowest total cost of ownership and the least administrative burden, making it the best and most cost-effective choice.
Question #114
A network manager wants to implement a SIEM system to correlate system events.
Which of the following protocols should the network manager verify?
- A . NTP
- B . DNS
- C . LDAP
- D . DHCP
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Role of NTP (Network Time Protocol):
NTP is used to synchronize the clocks of network devices to a reference time source. Accurate time synchronization is critical for correlating events and logs from different systems.
Importance for SIEM Systems:
Event Correlation: SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) systems collect and analyze log data from various sources. Accurate timestamps are essential for correlating events across multiple systems.
Time Consistency: Without synchronized time, it is challenging to piece together the sequence of events during an incident, making forensic analysis difficult.
Comparison with Other Protocols:
DNS (Domain Name System): Translates domain names to IP addresses but is not related to time synchronization.
LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol): Used for directory services, such as user authentication and authorization.
DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol): Assigns IP addresses to devices on a network but does not handle time synchronization.
Implementation:
Ensure that all network devices, servers, and endpoints are synchronized using NTP. This can be achieved by configuring devices to use an NTP server, which could be a local server or an external time source.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials on network protocols and SIEM systems.
A
Explanation:
Role of NTP (Network Time Protocol):
NTP is used to synchronize the clocks of network devices to a reference time source. Accurate time synchronization is critical for correlating events and logs from different systems.
Importance for SIEM Systems:
Event Correlation: SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) systems collect and analyze log data from various sources. Accurate timestamps are essential for correlating events across multiple systems.
Time Consistency: Without synchronized time, it is challenging to piece together the sequence of events during an incident, making forensic analysis difficult.
Comparison with Other Protocols:
DNS (Domain Name System): Translates domain names to IP addresses but is not related to time synchronization.
LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol): Used for directory services, such as user authentication and authorization.
DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol): Assigns IP addresses to devices on a network but does not handle time synchronization.
Implementation:
Ensure that all network devices, servers, and endpoints are synchronized using NTP. This can be achieved by configuring devices to use an NTP server, which could be a local server or an external time source.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials on network protocols and SIEM systems.
Question #115
Which of the following can be used when a server at a remote site is physically unreachable?
- A . OOB management
- B . Crash cart
- C . Jump box
- D . Console
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Out-of-band (OOB) management allows administrators to manage devices remotely even if the primary network is down. This is especially useful when physical access to the server is not possible. OOB management often uses a separate management interface, ensuring access regardless of the server’s operational state.
Reference: Section 3.5 C Network Access and Management Methods C “OOB Management”
A
Explanation:
Out-of-band (OOB) management allows administrators to manage devices remotely even if the primary network is down. This is especially useful when physical access to the server is not possible. OOB management often uses a separate management interface, ensuring access regardless of the server’s operational state.
Reference: Section 3.5 C Network Access and Management Methods C “OOB Management”
Question #116
Which of the following protocols provides remote access utilizing port 22?
- A . SSH
- B . Telnet
- C . TLS
- D . RDP
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
SSH (Secure Shell) is a protocol used to securely connect to a remote server/system over a network. It operates on port 22 and provides encrypted communication, unlike Telnet which operates on port 23 and is not secure. TLS is used for securing HTTP connections (HTTPS) and operates on ports like 443, while RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) is used for remote desktop connections and operates on port 3389.
Reference: The CompTIA Network+ materials and tutorials cover SSH as the standard protocol for secure remote access, highlighting its operation on port 22.
A
Explanation:
SSH (Secure Shell) is a protocol used to securely connect to a remote server/system over a network. It operates on port 22 and provides encrypted communication, unlike Telnet which operates on port 23 and is not secure. TLS is used for securing HTTP connections (HTTPS) and operates on ports like 443, while RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) is used for remote desktop connections and operates on port 3389.
Reference: The CompTIA Network+ materials and tutorials cover SSH as the standard protocol for secure remote access, highlighting its operation on port 22.
Question #117
A network technician is examining the configuration on an access port and notices more than one VLAN has been set.
Which of the following best describes how the port is configured?
- A . With a voice VLAN
- B . With too many VLANs
- C . With a default VLAN
- D . With a native VLAN
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
It is common for an access port to have both a voice VLAN and a data VLAN. A voice VLAN separates voice traffic from regular data traffic, ensuring better quality and security for voice communications.
A
Explanation:
It is common for an access port to have both a voice VLAN and a data VLAN. A voice VLAN separates voice traffic from regular data traffic, ensuring better quality and security for voice communications.
Question #117
A network technician is examining the configuration on an access port and notices more than one VLAN has been set.
Which of the following best describes how the port is configured?
- A . With a voice VLAN
- B . With too many VLANs
- C . With a default VLAN
- D . With a native VLAN
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
It is common for an access port to have both a voice VLAN and a data VLAN. A voice VLAN separates voice traffic from regular data traffic, ensuring better quality and security for voice communications.
A
Explanation:
It is common for an access port to have both a voice VLAN and a data VLAN. A voice VLAN separates voice traffic from regular data traffic, ensuring better quality and security for voice communications.
Question #119
A customer calls the help desk to report that resources are no longer reachable. The resources were available before network changes were made. The technician verifies the report, investigates, and discovers that a new logical layout is segmenting the network using tagging.
Which of the following appliances most likely needs to be reviewed to restore the connections?
- A . Access point
- B . Firewall
- C . Switch
- D . Load balancer
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The correct answer is Switch because the question references a new logical layout segmenting the network using tagging, which indicates VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) configuration. VLAN tagging (IEEE 802.1Q) is performed on switches to logically separate broadcast domains within the same physical infrastructure.
According to CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) objectives under switching technologies, VLANs are used to improve security, reduce broadcast traffic, and logically segment network traffic. When VLAN tagging is misconfigured―such as incorrect trunk ports, access port assignments, or mismatched VLAN IDs―devices may lose connectivity to required network resources.
Since the issue began after changes involving tagging, the most likely cause is an incorrect switch configuration, such as improper VLAN assignments or trunking settings.
An access point (Option A) may use VLANs for SSID segmentation, but core tagging configuration is handled at the switch. A firewall (Option B) filters traffic but does not control VLAN tagging at Layer 2 in typical deployments. A load balancer (Option D) distributes traffic among servers and is unrelated to VLAN segmentation.
Therefore, reviewing the switch configuration is the appropriate action to restore connectivity.
C
Explanation:
The correct answer is Switch because the question references a new logical layout segmenting the network using tagging, which indicates VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) configuration. VLAN tagging (IEEE 802.1Q) is performed on switches to logically separate broadcast domains within the same physical infrastructure.
According to CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) objectives under switching technologies, VLANs are used to improve security, reduce broadcast traffic, and logically segment network traffic. When VLAN tagging is misconfigured―such as incorrect trunk ports, access port assignments, or mismatched VLAN IDs―devices may lose connectivity to required network resources.
Since the issue began after changes involving tagging, the most likely cause is an incorrect switch configuration, such as improper VLAN assignments or trunking settings.
An access point (Option A) may use VLANs for SSID segmentation, but core tagging configuration is handled at the switch. A firewall (Option B) filters traffic but does not control VLAN tagging at Layer 2 in typical deployments. A load balancer (Option D) distributes traffic among servers and is unrelated to VLAN segmentation.
Therefore, reviewing the switch configuration is the appropriate action to restore connectivity.
Question #120
A technician is deploying new networking hardware for company branch offices. The bridge priority must be properly set.
Which of the following should the technician configure?
- A . Spanning tree protocol
- B . Jumbo frames
- C . Perimeter network
- D . Port security
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) uses bridge priority values to determine the root bridge in a switched network topology. Correctly configuring bridge priority helps in maintaining a loop-free and efficient network.
The document explains:
“Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) uses bridge priority values to determine which switch will be the root bridge, ensuring loop prevention and efficient path selection within the network.”
A
Explanation:
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) uses bridge priority values to determine the root bridge in a switched network topology. Correctly configuring bridge priority helps in maintaining a loop-free and efficient network.
The document explains:
“Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) uses bridge priority values to determine which switch will be the root bridge, ensuring loop prevention and efficient path selection within the network.”