Practice Free N10-009 Exam Online Questions
Question #101
After a company installed a new IPS, the network is experiencing speed degradation. A network administrator is troubleshooting the issue and runs a speed test.
The results from the different network locations are as follows:
Location Speed Down Speed Up
Wireless laptop4.8 Mbps47.1 Mbps
Wired desktop5.2 Mbps49.3 Mbps
Firewall48.8 Mbps49.5 Mbps
Which of the following is the most likely issue?
- A . Packet loss
- B . Bottlenecking
- C . Channel overlap
- D . Network congestion
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Bottlenecking occurs when a device in the network (such as an IPS) cannot process traffic efficiently, resulting in a dramatic drop in throughput. The significant difference between the firewall’s speed (48.8 Mbps down) and the end-user devices’ speeds (4.8 – 5.2 Mbps down) indicates a bottleneck caused by the IPS.
• Why not the other options?
• Packet loss (A) C Would typically cause connection timeouts, not just slow speeds.
• Channel overlap (C) C Affects only wireless networks, but the wired desktop is also experiencing slow speeds.
• Network congestion (D) C Would show fluctuations in both upload and download speeds, but upload speeds remain unaffected.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) Official Guide C Chapter 13: Network Performance Optimization
B
Explanation:
Bottlenecking occurs when a device in the network (such as an IPS) cannot process traffic efficiently, resulting in a dramatic drop in throughput. The significant difference between the firewall’s speed (48.8 Mbps down) and the end-user devices’ speeds (4.8 – 5.2 Mbps down) indicates a bottleneck caused by the IPS.
• Why not the other options?
• Packet loss (A) C Would typically cause connection timeouts, not just slow speeds.
• Channel overlap (C) C Affects only wireless networks, but the wired desktop is also experiencing slow speeds.
• Network congestion (D) C Would show fluctuations in both upload and download speeds, but upload speeds remain unaffected.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) Official Guide C Chapter 13: Network Performance Optimization
Question #101
After a company installed a new IPS, the network is experiencing speed degradation. A network administrator is troubleshooting the issue and runs a speed test.
The results from the different network locations are as follows:
Location Speed Down Speed Up
Wireless laptop4.8 Mbps47.1 Mbps
Wired desktop5.2 Mbps49.3 Mbps
Firewall48.8 Mbps49.5 Mbps
Which of the following is the most likely issue?
- A . Packet loss
- B . Bottlenecking
- C . Channel overlap
- D . Network congestion
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Bottlenecking occurs when a device in the network (such as an IPS) cannot process traffic efficiently, resulting in a dramatic drop in throughput. The significant difference between the firewall’s speed (48.8 Mbps down) and the end-user devices’ speeds (4.8 – 5.2 Mbps down) indicates a bottleneck caused by the IPS.
• Why not the other options?
• Packet loss (A) C Would typically cause connection timeouts, not just slow speeds.
• Channel overlap (C) C Affects only wireless networks, but the wired desktop is also experiencing slow speeds.
• Network congestion (D) C Would show fluctuations in both upload and download speeds, but upload speeds remain unaffected.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) Official Guide C Chapter 13: Network Performance Optimization
B
Explanation:
Bottlenecking occurs when a device in the network (such as an IPS) cannot process traffic efficiently, resulting in a dramatic drop in throughput. The significant difference between the firewall’s speed (48.8 Mbps down) and the end-user devices’ speeds (4.8 – 5.2 Mbps down) indicates a bottleneck caused by the IPS.
• Why not the other options?
• Packet loss (A) C Would typically cause connection timeouts, not just slow speeds.
• Channel overlap (C) C Affects only wireless networks, but the wired desktop is also experiencing slow speeds.
• Network congestion (D) C Would show fluctuations in both upload and download speeds, but upload speeds remain unaffected.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) Official Guide C Chapter 13: Network Performance Optimization
Question #103
A technician is deploying new networking hardware for company branch offices. The bridge priority must be properly set.
Which of the following should the technician configure?
- A . Spanning tree protocol
- B . Jumbo frames
- C . Perimeter network
- D . Port security
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) uses bridge priority values to determine the root bridge in a switched network topology. Correctly configuring bridge priority helps in maintaining a loop-free and efficient network.
The document explains:
“Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) uses bridge priority values to determine which switch will be the root bridge, ensuring loop prevention and efficient path selection within the network.”
A
Explanation:
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) uses bridge priority values to determine the root bridge in a switched network topology. Correctly configuring bridge priority helps in maintaining a loop-free and efficient network.
The document explains:
“Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) uses bridge priority values to determine which switch will be the root bridge, ensuring loop prevention and efficient path selection within the network.”
Question #104
Which of the following is a use case for a PaaS environment?
- A . Mobile access
- B . E-commerce site
- C . Application development
- D . Cloud-native software
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
PaaS (Platform as a Service) is best suited for application development because it provides a managed platform that includes the runtime environment, development frameworks, middleware, databases (often), and build/deployment tooling. In a PaaS model, the cloud provider manages the underlying infrastructure (servers, storage, networking, OS patching, and often the application runtime), allowing developers to focus on writing code, testing, and releasing applications quickly. This aligns with Network+ cloud concepts where service models are compared by responsibility: PaaS reduces operational overhead for the customer and accelerates development through standardized environments and automation.
Mobile access is a use case for remote access solutions (VPN, zero trust access, MDM), not specifically PaaS. An e-commerce site could be hosted using many models (IaaS, PaaS, SaaS), so it’s not the most specific match. Cloud-native software describes an architectural style (microservices, containers, managed services) and can be built using PaaS components, but it is broader than a single “use case” and is not as directly tied to the PaaS definition as application development is. Therefore, application development is the clearest and most accurate PaaS use case.
C
Explanation:
PaaS (Platform as a Service) is best suited for application development because it provides a managed platform that includes the runtime environment, development frameworks, middleware, databases (often), and build/deployment tooling. In a PaaS model, the cloud provider manages the underlying infrastructure (servers, storage, networking, OS patching, and often the application runtime), allowing developers to focus on writing code, testing, and releasing applications quickly. This aligns with Network+ cloud concepts where service models are compared by responsibility: PaaS reduces operational overhead for the customer and accelerates development through standardized environments and automation.
Mobile access is a use case for remote access solutions (VPN, zero trust access, MDM), not specifically PaaS. An e-commerce site could be hosted using many models (IaaS, PaaS, SaaS), so it’s not the most specific match. Cloud-native software describes an architectural style (microservices, containers, managed services) and can be built using PaaS components, but it is broader than a single “use case” and is not as directly tied to the PaaS definition as application development is. Therefore, application development is the clearest and most accurate PaaS use case.
Question #104
Which of the following is a use case for a PaaS environment?
- A . Mobile access
- B . E-commerce site
- C . Application development
- D . Cloud-native software
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
PaaS (Platform as a Service) is best suited for application development because it provides a managed platform that includes the runtime environment, development frameworks, middleware, databases (often), and build/deployment tooling. In a PaaS model, the cloud provider manages the underlying infrastructure (servers, storage, networking, OS patching, and often the application runtime), allowing developers to focus on writing code, testing, and releasing applications quickly. This aligns with Network+ cloud concepts where service models are compared by responsibility: PaaS reduces operational overhead for the customer and accelerates development through standardized environments and automation.
Mobile access is a use case for remote access solutions (VPN, zero trust access, MDM), not specifically PaaS. An e-commerce site could be hosted using many models (IaaS, PaaS, SaaS), so it’s not the most specific match. Cloud-native software describes an architectural style (microservices, containers, managed services) and can be built using PaaS components, but it is broader than a single “use case” and is not as directly tied to the PaaS definition as application development is. Therefore, application development is the clearest and most accurate PaaS use case.
C
Explanation:
PaaS (Platform as a Service) is best suited for application development because it provides a managed platform that includes the runtime environment, development frameworks, middleware, databases (often), and build/deployment tooling. In a PaaS model, the cloud provider manages the underlying infrastructure (servers, storage, networking, OS patching, and often the application runtime), allowing developers to focus on writing code, testing, and releasing applications quickly. This aligns with Network+ cloud concepts where service models are compared by responsibility: PaaS reduces operational overhead for the customer and accelerates development through standardized environments and automation.
Mobile access is a use case for remote access solutions (VPN, zero trust access, MDM), not specifically PaaS. An e-commerce site could be hosted using many models (IaaS, PaaS, SaaS), so it’s not the most specific match. Cloud-native software describes an architectural style (microservices, containers, managed services) and can be built using PaaS components, but it is broader than a single “use case” and is not as directly tied to the PaaS definition as application development is. Therefore, application development is the clearest and most accurate PaaS use case.
Question #106
Which of the following is a difference between EOL and EOS?
- A . EOL discontinues the product but may offer support.
- B . EOS replaces free support with a subscription model.
- C . EOS only applies to physical products.
- D . EOL still guarantees warranty service.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The correct answer is EOL discontinues the product but may offer support. According to CompTIA
Network+ (N10-009) objectives related to lifecycle management and vendor support policies, End of Life (EOL) indicates that a product is no longer being manufactured or sold by the vendor. However, after EOL is declared, the vendor may continue to provide limited support, updates, or warranty services for a defined period.
In contrast, End of Support (EOS) means the vendor has stopped providing technical assistance, patches, firmware updates, and security fixes for the product. Once a product reaches EOS, organizations are responsible for maintaining it without vendor assistance, which can introduce operational and security risks.
Option B is incorrect because EOS does not typically convert support into a subscription model―it signifies the termination of support.
Option C is incorrect because EOS applies to both hardware and software products.
Option D is incorrect because warranty terms depend on vendor policy and are not guaranteed after EOL status.
Therefore, the key distinction is that EOL ends product sales, while EOS ends vendor support.
A
Explanation:
The correct answer is EOL discontinues the product but may offer support. According to CompTIA
Network+ (N10-009) objectives related to lifecycle management and vendor support policies, End of Life (EOL) indicates that a product is no longer being manufactured or sold by the vendor. However, after EOL is declared, the vendor may continue to provide limited support, updates, or warranty services for a defined period.
In contrast, End of Support (EOS) means the vendor has stopped providing technical assistance, patches, firmware updates, and security fixes for the product. Once a product reaches EOS, organizations are responsible for maintaining it without vendor assistance, which can introduce operational and security risks.
Option B is incorrect because EOS does not typically convert support into a subscription model―it signifies the termination of support.
Option C is incorrect because EOS applies to both hardware and software products.
Option D is incorrect because warranty terms depend on vendor policy and are not guaranteed after EOL status.
Therefore, the key distinction is that EOL ends product sales, while EOS ends vendor support.
Question #107
A customer is adding fiber connectivity between adjacent buildings. A technician terminates the multimode cable to the fiber patch panel. After the technician connects the fiber patch cable, the indicator light does not turn on.
Which of the following should a technician try first to troubleshoot this issue?
- A . Reverse the fibers.
- B . Reterminate the fibers.
- C . Verify the fiber size.
- D . Examine the cable runs for visual faults.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
When working with fiber optic cables, one common issue is that the transmit (TX) and receive (RX) fibers might be reversed. The first step in troubleshooting should be to reverse the fibers at one end to ensure they are correctly aligned (TX to RX and RX to TX). This is a simple and quick step to rule out a common issue before moving on to more complex troubleshooting.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.
A
Explanation:
When working with fiber optic cables, one common issue is that the transmit (TX) and receive (RX) fibers might be reversed. The first step in troubleshooting should be to reverse the fibers at one end to ensure they are correctly aligned (TX to RX and RX to TX). This is a simple and quick step to rule out a common issue before moving on to more complex troubleshooting.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.
Question #108
A network engineer is completing a wireless installation in a new building. A requirement is that all clients be able to automatically connect to the fastest supported network.
Which of the following best supports this requirement?
- A . Enabling band steering
- B . Disabling the 5GHz SSID
- C . Adding a captive portal
- D . Configuring MAC filtering
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Band steering is a feature in wireless networks that encourages dual-band capable devices to connect to the 5GHz band instead of the 2.4GHz band.
Why Band Steering?
The 5GHz band supports higher speeds and less interference compared to 2.4GHz.
If a device supports both bands, the access point (AP) can "steer" it to connect to 5GHz instead of 2.4GHz.
This helps ensure users always connect to the fastest available network.
Incorrect Options:
B. Disabling the 5GHz SSID: Would force devices onto 2.4GHz, which is slower and more congested.
C. Adding a Captive Portal: Used for guest authentication, not for speed optimization.
D. Configuring MAC Filtering: Used for security, not for optimizing network speed.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Study Guide C Chapter on Wireless Technologies and Optimization
A
Explanation:
Band steering is a feature in wireless networks that encourages dual-band capable devices to connect to the 5GHz band instead of the 2.4GHz band.
Why Band Steering?
The 5GHz band supports higher speeds and less interference compared to 2.4GHz.
If a device supports both bands, the access point (AP) can "steer" it to connect to 5GHz instead of 2.4GHz.
This helps ensure users always connect to the fastest available network.
Incorrect Options:
B. Disabling the 5GHz SSID: Would force devices onto 2.4GHz, which is slower and more congested.
C. Adding a Captive Portal: Used for guest authentication, not for speed optimization.
D. Configuring MAC Filtering: Used for security, not for optimizing network speed.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Study Guide C Chapter on Wireless Technologies and Optimization
Question #108
A network engineer is completing a wireless installation in a new building. A requirement is that all clients be able to automatically connect to the fastest supported network.
Which of the following best supports this requirement?
- A . Enabling band steering
- B . Disabling the 5GHz SSID
- C . Adding a captive portal
- D . Configuring MAC filtering
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Band steering is a feature in wireless networks that encourages dual-band capable devices to connect to the 5GHz band instead of the 2.4GHz band.
Why Band Steering?
The 5GHz band supports higher speeds and less interference compared to 2.4GHz.
If a device supports both bands, the access point (AP) can "steer" it to connect to 5GHz instead of 2.4GHz.
This helps ensure users always connect to the fastest available network.
Incorrect Options:
B. Disabling the 5GHz SSID: Would force devices onto 2.4GHz, which is slower and more congested.
C. Adding a Captive Portal: Used for guest authentication, not for speed optimization.
D. Configuring MAC Filtering: Used for security, not for optimizing network speed.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Study Guide C Chapter on Wireless Technologies and Optimization
A
Explanation:
Band steering is a feature in wireless networks that encourages dual-band capable devices to connect to the 5GHz band instead of the 2.4GHz band.
Why Band Steering?
The 5GHz band supports higher speeds and less interference compared to 2.4GHz.
If a device supports both bands, the access point (AP) can "steer" it to connect to 5GHz instead of 2.4GHz.
This helps ensure users always connect to the fastest available network.
Incorrect Options:
B. Disabling the 5GHz SSID: Would force devices onto 2.4GHz, which is slower and more congested.
C. Adding a Captive Portal: Used for guest authentication, not for speed optimization.
D. Configuring MAC Filtering: Used for security, not for optimizing network speed.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Study Guide C Chapter on Wireless Technologies and Optimization
Question #110
Which of the following allows an organization to map multiple internal devices to a single external-facing IP address?
- A . NAT
- B . BGP
- C . OSPF
- D . FHRP
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
NAT (Network Address Translation) allows multiple private IP addresses to share a single public IP when accessing the internet. This conserves public IPs and provides basic security by hiding internal addresses.
B. BGP is a routing protocol.
C. OSPF is a link-state IGP.
D. FHRP provides redundant gateways, not IP sharing
Reference (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):
Domain: Networking Concepts ― NAT, PAT, private-to-public IP mapping.
A
Explanation:
NAT (Network Address Translation) allows multiple private IP addresses to share a single public IP when accessing the internet. This conserves public IPs and provides basic security by hiding internal addresses.
B. BGP is a routing protocol.
C. OSPF is a link-state IGP.
D. FHRP provides redundant gateways, not IP sharing
Reference (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):
Domain: Networking Concepts ― NAT, PAT, private-to-public IP mapping.