Practice Free N10-009 Exam Online Questions
Question #11
Which of the following best describes the purpose of a UPS and PDU in a network installation?
- A . To support voltage requirements for devices in an IDF
- B . To manage power consumption in the MDF
- C . To connect multiple devices to a single network connection
- D . To regulate temperature in the MDF and IDF
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. To support voltage requirements for devices in an IDF. In the CompTIA Network+ N10-009 objectives, network infrastructure includes power systems such as Uninterruptible Power Supplies (UPS) and Power Distribution Units (PDU), which are critical components in both MDF (Main Distribution Frame) and IDF (Intermediate Distribution Frame) environments.
A UPS provides temporary backup power during electrical outages and also conditions power by protecting against surges, spikes, and voltage fluctuations. This ensures that sensitive network equipment such as switches, routers, and servers can continue operating or safely shut down. A PDU, on the other hand, distributes electrical power to multiple devices within a rack, ensuring that all equipment receives the appropriate voltage and sufficient power capacity.
Option B is incorrect because while PDUs can help distribute power, they do not directly manage or optimize power consumption.
Option C refers to networking devices like switches, not power equipment.
Option D relates to environmental controls such as HVAC systems, not UPS or PDU devices.
Therefore, the primary purpose of UPS and PDU systems is to ensure stable and adequate power delivery to network devices, particularly in environments like IDFs.
A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. To support voltage requirements for devices in an IDF. In the CompTIA Network+ N10-009 objectives, network infrastructure includes power systems such as Uninterruptible Power Supplies (UPS) and Power Distribution Units (PDU), which are critical components in both MDF (Main Distribution Frame) and IDF (Intermediate Distribution Frame) environments.
A UPS provides temporary backup power during electrical outages and also conditions power by protecting against surges, spikes, and voltage fluctuations. This ensures that sensitive network equipment such as switches, routers, and servers can continue operating or safely shut down. A PDU, on the other hand, distributes electrical power to multiple devices within a rack, ensuring that all equipment receives the appropriate voltage and sufficient power capacity.
Option B is incorrect because while PDUs can help distribute power, they do not directly manage or optimize power consumption.
Option C refers to networking devices like switches, not power equipment.
Option D relates to environmental controls such as HVAC systems, not UPS or PDU devices.
Therefore, the primary purpose of UPS and PDU systems is to ensure stable and adequate power delivery to network devices, particularly in environments like IDFs.
Question #12
Which of the following connectors provides console access to a switch?
- A . ST
- B . RJ45
- C . BNC
- D . SFP
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Console Access:
Purpose: Console access to a switch allows administrators to configure and manage the device directly. This is typically done using a terminal emulator program on a computer.
RJ45 Connector:
Common Use: The RJ45 connector is widely used for Ethernet cables and also for console connections to network devices like switches and routers.
Console Cables: Console cables often have an RJ45 connector on one end (for the switch) and a DB9 serial connector on the other end (for the computer).
Comparison with Other Connectors:
ST (Straight Tip): A fiber optic connector used for networking, not for console access.
BNC (Bayonet Neill-Concelman): A connector used for coaxial cable, typically in older network setups and not for console access.
SFP (Small Form-factor Pluggable): A modular transceiver used for network interfaces, not for console access.
Practical Application:
Connection Process: Connect the RJ45 end of the console cable to the console port of the switch. Connect the DB9 end (or USB via adapter) to the computer. Use a terminal emulator (e.g., PuTTY, Tera Term) to access the switch’s command-line interface (CLI).
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials on network devices and connectors.
B
Explanation:
Console Access:
Purpose: Console access to a switch allows administrators to configure and manage the device directly. This is typically done using a terminal emulator program on a computer.
RJ45 Connector:
Common Use: The RJ45 connector is widely used for Ethernet cables and also for console connections to network devices like switches and routers.
Console Cables: Console cables often have an RJ45 connector on one end (for the switch) and a DB9 serial connector on the other end (for the computer).
Comparison with Other Connectors:
ST (Straight Tip): A fiber optic connector used for networking, not for console access.
BNC (Bayonet Neill-Concelman): A connector used for coaxial cable, typically in older network setups and not for console access.
SFP (Small Form-factor Pluggable): A modular transceiver used for network interfaces, not for console access.
Practical Application:
Connection Process: Connect the RJ45 end of the console cable to the console port of the switch. Connect the DB9 end (or USB via adapter) to the computer. Use a terminal emulator (e.g., PuTTY, Tera Term) to access the switch’s command-line interface (CLI).
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials on network devices and connectors.
Question #13
A small company has the following IP addressing strategy:
A user is unable to connect to the company fileshare server located at 192.168.10.1.
The user’s networking configuration is:
Which of the following will most likely correct the issue?
- A . Changing the IPv4 address to 192.168.10.1
- B . Changing the subnet mask to 255.255.255.0
- C . Changing the DNS servers to internet IPs
- D . Changing the physical address to 7A-01-7A-21-01-50
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
If the user cannot communicate with 192.168.10.1, they might be on a different subnet. Changing the subnet mask to 255.255.255.0 ensures the user and the file server are in the same subnet.
Breakdown of Options:
B
Explanation:
If the user cannot communicate with 192.168.10.1, they might be on a different subnet. Changing the subnet mask to 255.255.255.0 ensures the user and the file server are in the same subnet.
Breakdown of Options:
Question #14
1.1 <1 ms 2. * <1 ms <1 ms
k k
k kTraceroute complete
Which of the following should the technician do to identify the path to the server?
- A . Review the router’s ACL.
- B . Execute netstat.
- C . Perform an nslookup.
- D . Enable LLDP.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
When traceroute shows asterisks (timeouts) instead of IP addresses or hostnames, it may indicate that intermediate routers are dropping ICMP packets. However, performing an nslookup will reveal the IP address associated with the domain name, confirming that DNS resolution is correct and helping identify the path to the target server.
The document states:
“nslookup is used to query DNS servers to retrieve IP address information associated with a domain name, which helps confirm DNS resolution is working correctly even when traceroute results show timeouts.”
C
Explanation:
When traceroute shows asterisks (timeouts) instead of IP addresses or hostnames, it may indicate that intermediate routers are dropping ICMP packets. However, performing an nslookup will reveal the IP address associated with the domain name, confirming that DNS resolution is correct and helping identify the path to the target server.
The document states:
“nslookup is used to query DNS servers to retrieve IP address information associated with a domain name, which helps confirm DNS resolution is working correctly even when traceroute results show timeouts.”
Question #15
A network administrator must implement a feature that supports redundancy and scaling on the switches at the distribution layer of the network.
Which of the following is the best option?
- A . VLAN assignment
- B . Spanning tree
- C . Port speed
- D . Full duplex
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Spanning tree. At the distribution layer, switch redundancy is common because multiple paths are usually built into the design to avoid a single point of failure. The problem with redundant Layer 2 paths is that they can create switching loops, broadcast storms, and unstable MAC address tables if nothing controls them. Spanning Tree Protocol solves that problem by logically blocking one or more redundant paths while still keeping those paths available as backups.
That makes spanning tree the best fit for a feature that supports both redundancy and safe scaling. As the switched environment grows, STP helps maintain a stable topology and prevents loop-related failures. If the active path fails, a blocked redundant path can be brought into service.
The other options do not address the real need. VLAN assignment is used to segment broadcast domains, but it does not manage redundant Layer 2 paths. Port speed only affects throughput on an interface. Full duplex improves communication efficiency on a link, but it also does not provide redundancy control or loop prevention.
When a Network+ question mentions redundancy on switches and asks for the best switching feature, spanning tree is the strongest answer.
B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Spanning tree. At the distribution layer, switch redundancy is common because multiple paths are usually built into the design to avoid a single point of failure. The problem with redundant Layer 2 paths is that they can create switching loops, broadcast storms, and unstable MAC address tables if nothing controls them. Spanning Tree Protocol solves that problem by logically blocking one or more redundant paths while still keeping those paths available as backups.
That makes spanning tree the best fit for a feature that supports both redundancy and safe scaling. As the switched environment grows, STP helps maintain a stable topology and prevents loop-related failures. If the active path fails, a blocked redundant path can be brought into service.
The other options do not address the real need. VLAN assignment is used to segment broadcast domains, but it does not manage redundant Layer 2 paths. Port speed only affects throughput on an interface. Full duplex improves communication efficiency on a link, but it also does not provide redundancy control or loop prevention.
When a Network+ question mentions redundancy on switches and asks for the best switching feature, spanning tree is the strongest answer.
Question #16
Users report performance issues on the network. A network administrator notices broadcast storms occurring.
Which of the following protocols should the administrator configure to mitigate this issue?
- A . Spanning Tree
- B . Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP)
- C . Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP)
- D . Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP)
- E . Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The correct answer is Spanning Tree because broadcast storms are typically caused by Layer 2 switching loops in Ethernet networks. According to the CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) objectives under switching concepts, the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is specifically designed to prevent loops in networks that have redundant switch connections.
In a Layer 2 environment, switches forward broadcast frames out all ports except the one on which they were received. If redundant paths exist without STP, frames can circulate indefinitely, creating a broadcast storm. This results in excessive traffic, high CPU utilization on switches, MAC address table instability, and significant network performance degradation.
STP prevents this by logically blocking redundant paths while maintaining them as backups. If the active path fails, STP recalculates and activates a previously blocked path, preserving redundancy without loops.
The other options―EIGRP and BGP (routing protocols) and CDP and LLDP (device discovery protocols)―do not prevent Layer 2 loops.
Therefore, configuring Spanning Tree Protocol is the appropriate solution to mitigate broadcast storms.
A
Explanation:
The correct answer is Spanning Tree because broadcast storms are typically caused by Layer 2 switching loops in Ethernet networks. According to the CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) objectives under switching concepts, the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is specifically designed to prevent loops in networks that have redundant switch connections.
In a Layer 2 environment, switches forward broadcast frames out all ports except the one on which they were received. If redundant paths exist without STP, frames can circulate indefinitely, creating a broadcast storm. This results in excessive traffic, high CPU utilization on switches, MAC address table instability, and significant network performance degradation.
STP prevents this by logically blocking redundant paths while maintaining them as backups. If the active path fails, STP recalculates and activates a previously blocked path, preserving redundancy without loops.
The other options―EIGRP and BGP (routing protocols) and CDP and LLDP (device discovery protocols)―do not prevent Layer 2 loops.
Therefore, configuring Spanning Tree Protocol is the appropriate solution to mitigate broadcast storms.
Question #16
Users report performance issues on the network. A network administrator notices broadcast storms occurring.
Which of the following protocols should the administrator configure to mitigate this issue?
- A . Spanning Tree
- B . Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP)
- C . Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP)
- D . Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP)
- E . Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The correct answer is Spanning Tree because broadcast storms are typically caused by Layer 2 switching loops in Ethernet networks. According to the CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) objectives under switching concepts, the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is specifically designed to prevent loops in networks that have redundant switch connections.
In a Layer 2 environment, switches forward broadcast frames out all ports except the one on which they were received. If redundant paths exist without STP, frames can circulate indefinitely, creating a broadcast storm. This results in excessive traffic, high CPU utilization on switches, MAC address table instability, and significant network performance degradation.
STP prevents this by logically blocking redundant paths while maintaining them as backups. If the active path fails, STP recalculates and activates a previously blocked path, preserving redundancy without loops.
The other options―EIGRP and BGP (routing protocols) and CDP and LLDP (device discovery protocols)―do not prevent Layer 2 loops.
Therefore, configuring Spanning Tree Protocol is the appropriate solution to mitigate broadcast storms.
A
Explanation:
The correct answer is Spanning Tree because broadcast storms are typically caused by Layer 2 switching loops in Ethernet networks. According to the CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) objectives under switching concepts, the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is specifically designed to prevent loops in networks that have redundant switch connections.
In a Layer 2 environment, switches forward broadcast frames out all ports except the one on which they were received. If redundant paths exist without STP, frames can circulate indefinitely, creating a broadcast storm. This results in excessive traffic, high CPU utilization on switches, MAC address table instability, and significant network performance degradation.
STP prevents this by logically blocking redundant paths while maintaining them as backups. If the active path fails, STP recalculates and activates a previously blocked path, preserving redundancy without loops.
The other options―EIGRP and BGP (routing protocols) and CDP and LLDP (device discovery protocols)―do not prevent Layer 2 loops.
Therefore, configuring Spanning Tree Protocol is the appropriate solution to mitigate broadcast storms.
Question #18
After providing a username and password, a user must input a passcode from a phone application.
Which of the following authentication technologies is used in this example?
- A . SSO
- B . LDAP
- C . MFA
- D . SAML
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
This is an example of Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) because it requires:
Something you know (username/password)
Something you have (a phone-generated passcode)
Breakdown of Options:
C
Explanation:
This is an example of Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) because it requires:
Something you know (username/password)
Something you have (a phone-generated passcode)
Breakdown of Options:
Question #19
A user connects to a corporate VPN via a web browser and is able to use TLS to access the internal financial system to input a time card.
Which of the following best describes how the VPN is being used?
- A . Clientless
- B . Client-to-site
- C . Full tunnel
- D . Site-to-site
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives – Remote Access Methods section.
A
Explanation:
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives – Remote Access Methods section.
Question #20
A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two devices on two different subnets. The administrator verifies that both devices can successfully ping other devices on the same subnet.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the connectivity issue?
- A . Incorrect default gateway
- B . Faulty Ethernet cable
- C . Wrong duplex settings
- D . VLAN mismatch
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
When two devices on different subnets are unable to communicate, but can communicate with other devices on their own subnet, the issue is most often related to routing. Devices on different subnets require a default gateway to route traffic between networks.
If the default gateway is incorrectly configured, the device won’t know how to reach other subnets.
Faulty cables (Option B) or duplex mismatches (Option C) would likely cause connectivity issues even within the local subnet, which is not the case here.
VLAN mismatches (Option D) are typically issues with switch port configurations and would likely cause total loss of connectivity, including within the same subnet.
✅ So, the most probable and logical cause is an incorrect default gateway.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Study Guide ― Objective 2.4: "Compare and contrast routing technologies."
A
Explanation:
When two devices on different subnets are unable to communicate, but can communicate with other devices on their own subnet, the issue is most often related to routing. Devices on different subnets require a default gateway to route traffic between networks.
If the default gateway is incorrectly configured, the device won’t know how to reach other subnets.
Faulty cables (Option B) or duplex mismatches (Option C) would likely cause connectivity issues even within the local subnet, which is not the case here.
VLAN mismatches (Option D) are typically issues with switch port configurations and would likely cause total loss of connectivity, including within the same subnet.
✅ So, the most probable and logical cause is an incorrect default gateway.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Study Guide ― Objective 2.4: "Compare and contrast routing technologies."