Practice Free N10-009 Exam Online Questions
A major natural disaster strikes a company’s headquarters, causing significant destruction and data loss. The company needs to quickly recover and resume operations.
Which of the following will a network administrator need to do first?
- A . Conduct a damage assessment
- B . Migrate to the cold site
- C . Notify customers of the disaster
- D . Establish a communication plan
A
Explanation:
In disaster recovery, the first step after an incident is to conduct a thorough damage assessment to understand the extent of the damage and determine the next appropriate steps. This allows for informed decision-making during the recovery process.
The document says:
“The first step after a disaster is to conduct a damage assessment. This involves evaluating the extent of damage to equipment, infrastructure, and data, forming the foundation for recovery efforts and prioritizing response actions.”
Which of the following is a type of NAC that uses a set of policies to allow or deny access to the network based on the user’s identity?
- A . Standard ACL
- B . MAC filtering
- C . 802.1X
- D . SSO
C
Explanation:
A network engineer configures the network settings in a new server as follows:
IP address = 192.163.1.15
Subnet mask = 255.255.255.0
Gateway = 192.163.1.255
The server can reach other hosts on the same subnet successfully, but it cannot reach hosts on different subnets.
Which of the following is most likely configured incorrectly?
- A . Subnet mask
- B . Gateway
- C . Default route
- D . IP address
B
Explanation:
The default gateway for a network should be an IP address within the subnet, but not the broadcast address.
In this case:
IP: 192.163.1.15
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0
This means the network range is: 192.163.1.0 – 192.163.1.255
A network administrator is configuring a network for a new site that will have 150 users. Within the next year, the site is expected to grow by ten users. Each user will have two IP addresses, one for a computer and one for a phone connected to the network.
Which of the following classful IPv4 address ranges will be best-suited for the network?
- A . Class D
- B . Class B
- C . Class A
- D . Class C
D
Explanation:
IPv4 addresses are divided into classes:
Class A: Supports 16,777,214 hosts (large enterprises).
Class B: Supports 65,534 hosts (medium to large networks).
Class C: Supports 254 hosts (small to medium networks).
Class D: Used for multicast, not for assigning IPs to hosts.
Step-by-step Calculation:
The network will have 150 users initially, with a projected growth of 10 users, totaling 160 users.
Each user has two devices, so 160 × 2 = 320 IP addresses needed.
A Class C subnet has 254 usable IPs by default, which is not sufficient.
A Class B subnet can support thousands of hosts, making it the most appropriate option.
Incorrect Options:
An administrator is setting up an SNMP server for use in the enterprise network and needs to create device IDs within a MIB.
Which of the following describes the function of a MIB?
- A . DHCP relay device
- B . Policy enforcement point
- C . Definition file for event translation
- D . Network access controller
C
Explanation:
MIB (Management Information Base): A MIB is a database used for managing the entities in a communication network. The MIB is used by Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) to translate events into a readable format, enabling network administrators to manage and monitor network devices effectively.
Function of MIB: MIBs contain definitions and information about all objects that can be managed on a network using SNMP. These objects are defined using a hierarchical namespace containing object identifiers (OIDs).
CompTIA Network+ materials discussing SNMP and MIB functionality .
In an environment with one router, which of the following will allow a network engineer to communicate between VLANs without purchasing additional hardware?
- A . Subinterfaces
- B . VXLAN
- C . Layer 3 switch
- D . VIR
A
Explanation:
A subinterface is a logical interface created on a single physical router interface that allows routing between VLANs (known as Router-on-a-Stick (ROAS)). This method is commonly used when only one physical router is available, allowing inter-VLAN communication without additional hardware.
• Why not the other options?
• VXLAN (B) C This is used for extending Layer 2 networks over a Layer 3 infrastructure, primarily in data centers. It does not directly enable inter-VLAN communication.
• Layer 3 switch (C) C A Layer 3 switch can route between VLANs, but the scenario states that purchasing additional hardware is not an option.
• VIR (D) C This is not a standard networking term in the context of VLAN communication.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) Official Guide C Chapter 8: VLANs and Inter-VLAN Routing
Which of the following devices can operate in multiple layers of the OSI model?
- A . Hub
- B . Switch
- C . Transceiver
- D . Modem
B
Explanation:
Understanding Switches:
Layer 2 (Data Link Layer): Traditional switches operate primarily at Layer 2, where they use MAC addresses to forward frames within a local network.
Layer 3 (Network Layer): Layer 3 switches, also known as multilayer switches, can perform routing functions using IP addresses to forward packets between different networks.
Capabilities of Multilayer Switches:
VLANs and Inter-VLAN Routing: Multilayer switches can handle VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) configurations and perform inter-VLAN routing, enabling communication between different VLANs.
Routing Protocols: They can run routing protocols like OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) and EIGRP
(Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) to manage traffic between networks.
Comparison with Other Devices:
Hub: Operates only at Layer 1 (Physical Layer) and simply repeats incoming signals to all ports.
Transceiver: Also operates at Layer 1, converting electrical signals to optical signals and vice versa.
Modem: Primarily operates at Layer 1 and Layer 2, modulating and demodulating signals for transmission over different types of media.
Practical Application:
Multilayer switches are commonly used in enterprise networks to optimize performance and manage complex routing and switching requirements within a single device.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials on network devices and the OSI model.
A company’s marketing team created a new application and would like to create a DNS record for newapplication.comptia.org that always resolves to the same address as www.comptia.org.
Which of the following records should the administrator use?
- A . SOA
- B . MX
- C . CNAME
- D . NS
C
Explanation:
A CNAME (Canonical Name) record is used in DNS to alias one domain name to another. This means that newapplication.comptia.org can be made to resolve to the same IP address as www.comptia.org
by creating a CNAME record pointing newapplication.comptia.org to www.comptia.org. SOA (Start of Authority) is used for DNS zone information, MX (Mail Exchange) is for mail server records, and NS (Name Server) is for specifying authoritative DNS servers.
Reference: The DNS section of the CompTIA Network+ materials describes the use of CNAME records for creating domain aliases.
A technician is implementing a new SD-WAN device with a default configuration. The technician receives a URL via email and connects the new device to the internet to complete the installation.
Which of the following is this an example of?
- A . SASE device installation
- B . Zero-touch provisioning
- C . Infrastructure as code
- D . Configuration management
B
Explanation:
This process describes Zero-touch provisioning (ZTP), where a device automatically pulls its configuration from a cloud controller or URL once connected to the internet. It’s common in SD-WAN and modern network appliances.
Which of the following are the best device-hardening techniques for network security? (Select two).
- A . Disabling unused ports
- B . Performing regular scanning of unauthorized devices
- C . Monitoring system logs for irregularities
- D . Enabling logical security such as SSO
- E . Changing default passwords
- F . Ensuring least privilege concepts are in place
A,E
Explanation:
Disabling unused ports prevents unauthorized access and reduces the attack surface by ensuring that no inactive or unmonitored entry points are available for exploitation. Changing default passwords is critical for security because default credentials are widely known and can easily be exploited by attackers. These techniques are fundamental steps in hardening devices against unauthorized access and ensuring network security.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Exam Objectives and official study guides.