Practice Free N10-009 Exam Online Questions
HOTSPOT
Company C is acquiring Company A and Company B. Company C needs to merge all three networks into one Class B network. Additionally, the network capacity of each company needs to grow by 20%. Company C also requires segmentation of Company A and Company B to account for unknown security vulnerabilities within each.
Instructions:
Select the correct subnet range to meet Company C’s requirements.
B = 192.168.1.0/23
C = 10.0.0.1/18
Explanation:
Using the choices shown in the screenshot, the best-fit subnet selections are based on host growth requirements first, then segmentation.
For Company A, the current device count is 32. With 20% growth, that becomes about 39 devices. A /27 only supports 30 usable hosts, so it is too small. A /26 supports 62 usable hosts, so 192.168.10.0/26 is the correct choice.
For Company B, the current device count is 100. With 20% growth, that becomes 120 devices. The smallest correct subnet would normally be a /25 with 126 usable hosts, but that option is not shown. From the available choices, 192.168.1.0/23 is the smallest subnet that still supports more than 120 hosts, so that is the best answer.
For Company C, the current device count is 10,000. With 20% growth, it needs space for 12,000 hosts. A /18 provides 16,382 usable hosts, while a /19 is not available and a /21 or /22 would be far too small. Therefore, 10.0.0.1/18 is the correct selection.
One important note: the dropdown choices shown do not actually let all three companies be placed into a single true Class B network block. So these answers are the best valid selections from the provided options.
Users are experiencing significant lag while connecting to a cloud-based application during peak hours. An examination of the network reveals that the bandwidth is being heavily utilized. Further analysis shows that only a few users are using the application at any given time.
Which of the following is the most cost-effective solution for this issue?
- A . Limit the number of users who can access the application.
- B . Lease a Direct Connect connection to the cloud service provider.
- C . Implement QoS to prioritize application traffic.
- D . Use a CDN to service the application.
C
Explanation:
Quality of Service (QoS)is the best cost-effective solution. It prioritizes traffic based on application criticality. If the bandwidth is limited and only a few users are affected, prioritizing that application traffic can improve performance without needing costly bandwidth upgrades or direct connections.
Reference: Section 1.2 C Networking Appliances, Applications, and Functions C “Quality of Service (QoS)”
A network administrator needs to divide a Class B network into four equal subnets, each with a host range of 1,000 hosts.
Which of the following subnet masks should the administrator use?
- A . 255.255.0.0
- B . 255.255.252.0
- C . 255.255.255.0
- D . 255.255.255.128
B
Explanation:
The best answer is B. 255.255.252.0, which is a /22 mask. A Class B network starts with a default mask of 255.255.0.0 or /16. The question says the administrator wants four equal subnets, which means borrowing 2 bits from the host portion, since 2 borrowed bits gives 2² = 4 subnets. That moves the mask from /16 to /18 if subnetting is based only on splitting the Class B into four equal parts.
However, the answer choices point toward the host requirement as the deciding factor. Each subnet needs to support about 1,000 hosts. A /22 leaves 10 host bits, which gives 2¹⁰ = 1024 total addresses, or 1022 usable hosts after subtracting the network and broadcast addresses. That fits the requirement. Among the options provided, 255.255.252.0 is the only mask that supports around 1,000 hosts per subnet.
The smaller masks, /24 and /25, do not allow enough hosts. The default Class B mask, /16, does not subnet the network at all. Based on the available choices and the host-capacity requirement, 255.255.252.0 is the correct exam answer.
A company is purchasing a 40Gbps broadband connection service from an ISP.
Which of the following should most likely be configured on the 10G switch to take advantage of the new service?
- A . 802.1Q tagging
- B . Jumbo frames
- C . Half duplex
- D . Link aggregation
D
Explanation:
Since the switch supports only 10Gbps per port, achieving 40Gbps throughput requires link aggregation (LACP), which combines multiple 10Gbps links into one logical interface for higher bandwidth.
Breakdown of Options:
An employee has a new laptop and reports slow performance when using the wireless network. Switch firmware was updated the previous night.
A network administrator logs in to the switch and sees the following statistics on the switch interface for that employee:
98469 packets input, 1681937 bytes, 0 no buffer
Received 1548 broadcasts (25285 multicasts)
65335 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles
11546 input errors, 5 CRC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored
0 input packets with dribble condition detected
22781 packets output, 858040 bytes, 0 underruns
0 output errors, 89920 collisions, 0 interface resets
0 babbles, 0 late collision, 0 deferred
0 lost carrier, 0 no carrier
0 output buffer failures, 0 output buffers swapped out
Which of the following is most likely the cause of the issue?
- A . The patch cord from the wall jack is faulty.
- B . The switchport bandwidth needs to be increased.
- C . Multicast is not configured correctly on the switch.
- D . The NIC is set to half duplex.
D
Explanation:
A large number of collisions and input errors typically indicates a duplex mismatch, such as when one device is set to full duplex and the other to half duplex. This leads to communication issues and poor performance.
The document explains:
“Collisions and input errors are clear signs of duplex mismatches… typically caused when one device operates in half duplex while the other is in full duplex, causing performance and connectivity issues.”
A company implements a new network utilizing only IPv6 addressing and needs to connect to the internet.
Which of the following must be enabled in order for the internal network to contact servers on the internet?
- A . MPLS
- B . NAT64
- C . GRE
- D . Static routing
B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. NAT64. This scenario says the internal network is using only IPv6. In the real world, many internet services still rely on IPv4, so an IPv6-only client may need a translation mechanism to reach IPv4-based servers. That is exactly where NAT64 is used. It allows communication between IPv6-only clients and IPv4 resources by translating between the two protocols.
The other options do not solve that requirement. MPLS is used for traffic forwarding across provider networks and has nothing to do with IPv4/IPv6 protocol translation. GRE creates tunnels, but it does not automatically translate one IP version into another. Static routing can direct traffic, but it cannot make IPv6-only hosts speak to IPv4-only internet destinations.
From a Network+ perspective, this question is testing knowledge of IPv6 transition and interoperability mechanisms. If the network is entirely IPv6 internally, but still needs access to parts of the internet that may be IPv4, some translation service has to exist at the boundary. Among the choices given, NAT64 is the only technology that fits that role. That is why B is the best answer.
Which of the following facilities is the best example of a warm site in the event of information system disruption?
- A . A combination of public and private cloud services to restore data
- B . A partial infrastructure, software, and data on site
- C . A full electrical infrastructure in place, but no customer devices on site
- D . A full infrastructure in place, but no current data on site
D
Explanation:
A warm site typically has a full infrastructure ready, but it lacks the most up-to-date data or is not immediately operational. It requires some configuration or data restoration to become fully functional.
A network administrator is developing a method of device monitoring with the following requirements:
• Allows for explicit, by user, privilege management
• Includes centralized logging of changes
• Offers widely accessible remote management
• Provides support of service accounts
Which of the following will most closely meet these requirements?
- A . SNMP
- B . API
- C . SIEM
- D . SSO
B
Explanation:
• API (Application Programming Interface) enables secure and granular access control, remote management, and logging, making it ideal for network monitoring.
• SNMP (A) is mainly used for device monitoring but lacks centralized logging and user-based privilege control.
• SIEM (C) is a security monitoring tool focused on log collection, not device management.
• SSO (D) is related to authentication, not monitoring.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Documentation C Network Monitoring & Management Technologies.
Which of the following steps in the troubleshooting methodology would be next after putting preventive measures in place?
- A . Implement the solution.
- B . Verify system functionality.
- C . Establish a plan of action.
- D . Test the theory to determine cause.
B
Explanation:
After implementing a solution and putting preventive measures in place, the next step is to verify that the system is functioning correctly. This ensures that the issue has been fully resolved.
A security engineer is trying to connect cameras to a 12-port PoE switch, but only eight cameras turn on.
Which of the following should the engineer check first?
- A . Ethernet cable type
- B . Voltage
- C . Transceiver compatibility
- D . DHCP addressing
B
Explanation:
Power over Ethernet (PoE) allows devices such as cameras, access points, and VoIP phones to receive both power and data over the same Ethernet cable. If only eight out of twelve cameras turn on, the most likely issue is that the PoE switch has exceeded its power budget (total wattage capacity).
PoE Budget Limitation: PoE switches have a maximum power output, which can limit the number of devices they support simultaneously.
Voltage Check: Different PoE standards exist: