Practice Free N10-009 Exam Online Questions
A systems administrator is configuring a new device to be added to the network. The administrator is planning to perform device hardening prior to connecting the device.
Which of the following should the administrator do first?
- A . Update the network ACLs.
- B . Place the device in a screened subnet.
- C . Enable content filtering.
- D . Change the default admin passwords.
D
Explanation:
Changing default admin passwords is a fundamental first step in device hardening to prevent unauthorized access.
A systems administrator is configuring a new device to be added to the network. The administrator is planning to perform device hardening prior to connecting the device.
Which of the following should the administrator do first?
- A . Update the network ACLs.
- B . Place the device in a screened subnet.
- C . Enable content filtering.
- D . Change the default admin passwords.
D
Explanation:
Changing default admin passwords is a fundamental first step in device hardening to prevent unauthorized access.
Which of the following steps of the troubleshooting methodology should a technician take to confirm
a theory?
- A . Duplicate the problem.
- B . Identify the symptoms.
- C . Gather information.
- D . Determine any changes.
A
Explanation:
Troubleshooting Methodology:
Troubleshooting involves a systematic approach to diagnosing and resolving issues. It typically includes steps such as identifying symptoms, gathering information, formulating and testing theories, and implementing solutions.
Confirming a Theory:
Duplicate the Problem: To confirm a theory, the technician should reproduce the problem in a controlled environment. This helps verify that the identified cause actually leads to the observed issue.
Verification: By duplicating the problem, the technician can observe the issue firsthand, validate the hypothesis, and rule out other potential causes.
Comparison with Other Steps:
Identify the Symptoms: Initial step to understand what the problem is, not specifically for confirming a theory.
Gather Information: Involves collecting data and details about the issue, usually done before formulating a theory.
Determine Any Changes: Involves checking for recent changes that could have caused the issue, a part of the information-gathering phase.
Implementation:
Use similar equipment or software in a test environment to recreate the issue.
Observe the results to see if they match the original problem, thereby confirming the theory.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials on troubleshooting methodologies and best practices.
Which of the following most likely determines the size of a rack for installation? (Select two).
- A . KVM size
- B . Switch depth
- C . Hard drive size
- D . Cooling fan speed
- E . Outlet amperage
- F . Server height
B
Explanation:
Understanding Rack Size Determination:
The size of a rack for installation is determined by the dimensions of the equipment to be housed in it, primarily focusing on the depth and height of the devices.
Switch Depth:
Depth of Equipment: The depth of network switches and other rack-mounted devices directly influences the depth of the rack. If the equipment is deeper, a deeper rack is required to accommodate it.
Industry Standards: Most racks come in standard depths, but it is essential to match the depth of the rack to the deepest piece of equipment to ensure proper fit and airflow.
Server Height:
Height of Equipment: The height of servers and other devices is measured in rack units (U), where 1U equals 1.75 inches. The total height of all equipment determines the overall height requirement of the rack.
Rack Units: A rack’s height is typically described in terms of the number of rack units it can accommodate, such as 42U, 48U, etc.
Why Other Options are Less Relevant:
KVM Size: While important for management, KVM (Keyboard, Video, Mouse) switches do not typically determine rack size.
Hard Drive Size: Individual hard drives are installed within servers or storage devices, not directly influencing rack dimensions.
Cooling Fan Speed: Fan speed affects cooling but not the physical size of the rack.
Outlet Amperage: Power requirements do not determine rack dimensions but rather the electrical infrastructure supporting the rack.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials on rack installation and equipment sizing.
Which of the following appliances provides users with an extended footprint that allows connections from multiple devices within a designated WLAN?
- A . Router
- B . Switch
- C . Access point
- D . Firewall
C
Explanation:
An access point (AP) provides users with an extended footprint that allows connections from multiple devices within a designated Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN).
Router: Typically used to connect different networks, not specifically for extending wireless coverage.
Switch: Used to connect devices within a wired network, not for providing wireless access.
Access Point (AP): Extends wireless network coverage, allowing multiple wireless devices to connect to the network.
Firewall: Primarily used for network security, controlling incoming and outgoing traffic based on security rules, not for providing wireless connectivity. Network
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Explains the roles and functions of network appliances, including access points.
Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on deploying and managing wireless networks with access points.
Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Covers network devices and their roles in creating and managing networks.
Which of the following allows an organization to map multiple internal devices to a single external-facing IP address?
- A . NAT
- B . BGP
- C . OSPF
- D . FHRP
A
Explanation:
NAT (Network Address Translation) allows multiple private IP addresses to share a single public IP when accessing the internet. This conserves public IPs and provides basic security by hiding internal addresses.
B. BGP is a routing protocol.
C. OSPF is a link-state IGP.
D. FHRP provides redundant gateways, not IP sharing.
Reference (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):
Domain: Networking Concepts ― NAT, PAT, private-to-public IP mapping.
A user’s home mesh wireless network is experiencing latency issues. A technician has:
• Performed a speed test.
• Rebooted the devices.
• Performed a site survey.
• Performed a wireless packet capture.
The technician reviews the following information:
The technician notices in the packet capture that frames were retransmitted.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the user’s network issue?
- A . The SSIDs should not be the same.
- B . The network has too much overlap.
- C . The devices are incompatible with the mesh network.
- D . The nodes are underpowered.
B
Explanation:
• Too much overlap on the same channel (all devices on channel 11) causes interference, leading to retransmissions and high latency.
• Same SSIDs (A) are expected in mesh networks.
• Device compatibility (C) would show different symptoms.
• Node power (D) affects coverage, not congestion.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Documentation C Wireless Troubleshooting & Signal Interference.
A user’s home mesh wireless network is experiencing latency issues. A technician has:
• Performed a speed test.
• Rebooted the devices.
• Performed a site survey.
• Performed a wireless packet capture.
The technician reviews the following information:
The technician notices in the packet capture that frames were retransmitted.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the user’s network issue?
- A . The SSIDs should not be the same.
- B . The network has too much overlap.
- C . The devices are incompatible with the mesh network.
- D . The nodes are underpowered.
B
Explanation:
• Too much overlap on the same channel (all devices on channel 11) causes interference, leading to retransmissions and high latency.
• Same SSIDs (A) are expected in mesh networks.
• Device compatibility (C) would show different symptoms.
• Node power (D) affects coverage, not congestion.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Documentation C Wireless Troubleshooting & Signal Interference.
A company recently implemented a videoconferencing system that utilizes large amounts of bandwidth. Users start reporting slow internet speeds and an overall decrease in network performance.
Which of the following are most likely the causes of the network performance issues? (Select two)
- A . DNS misconfiguration
- B . Inadequate network security
- C . Malware or a virus
- D . Outdated software
- E . Incorrect QoS settings
- F . Network congestion
E,F
Explanation:
When high-bandwidth services like videoconferencing are introduced, two primary factors may degrade performance:
Incorrect QoS Settings (E):QoS (Quality of Service) is used to prioritize traffic. If not configured correctly, critical services like video may not get the necessary bandwidth and prioritization. Network Congestion (F):Video services consume large amounts of data. If the network doesn’t have sufficient bandwidth or is not segmented properly, congestion will slow down all services. DNS misconfiguration (A) would affect name resolution, not bandwidth.
Malware (C) could degrade performance, but is not tied to the described scenario.
Outdated software (D) may affect performance in some cases, but not directly linked to network congestion in this case.
Inadequate network security (B) isn’t likely to cause general slowness related to video traffic.
✅ So, the most likely culprits are
E. Incorrect QoS settings and
F. Network congestion.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Study Guide ― Objective 2.5: "Explain common performance concepts and issues."
A network administrator’s device is experiencing severe Wi-Fi interference within the corporate headquarters causing the device to constantly drop off the network.
Which of the following is most likely the cause of the issue?
- A . Too much wireless reflection
- B . Too much wireless absorption
- C . Too many wireless repeaters
- D . Too many client connections
A
Explanation:
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives – Wireless Networks section.