Practice Free N10-009 Exam Online Questions
Question #91
A network technician receives a new ticket while working on another issue. The new ticket is critical to business operations.
Which of the following documents should the technician reference to determine which ticket to complete first?
- A . NDA
- B . AUP
- C . SLA
- D . MOU
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
An SLA (Service Level Agreement) defines performance expectations, including response time, prioritization, and resolution time for services and support issues. It helps the technician determine which task has higher priority based on business impact.
C
Explanation:
An SLA (Service Level Agreement) defines performance expectations, including response time, prioritization, and resolution time for services and support issues. It helps the technician determine which task has higher priority based on business impact.
Question #92
A network administrator is troubleshooting a connection issue and needs to determine the path that a packet will take.
Which of the following commands accomplishes this task?
- A . netstat
- B . traceroute
- C . ping
- D . nslookup
- E . ipconfig
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
The correct answer is traceroute, which is the diagnostic command specifically designed to determine the path a packet takes across a network. According to the CompTIA Network+ N10-009 objectives, traceroute is a key network troubleshooting tool used to identify routing paths, hop counts, and points of latency or failure between a source and a destination.
Traceroute works by sending packets with incrementally increasing Time to Live (TTL) values. Each router along the path decrements the TTL by one, and when it reaches zero, the router returns an ICMP Time Exceeded message. This process allows the administrator to see each intermediate hop, its response time, and where packets may be delayed or dropped.
The other options do not fulfill this purpose. Ping only verifies basic connectivity and round-trip time but does not show the route taken. Netstat displays active connections, ports, and routing tables but does not trace packet paths. Nslookup is used to resolve DNS names to IP addresses, and ipconfig displays local network configuration information.
The Network+ objectives emphasize traceroute (or tracert on Windows systems) as the primary tool for diagnosing routing issues, asymmetric paths, and network congestion, making it the correct and most appropriate choice in this scenario.
B
Explanation:
The correct answer is traceroute, which is the diagnostic command specifically designed to determine the path a packet takes across a network. According to the CompTIA Network+ N10-009 objectives, traceroute is a key network troubleshooting tool used to identify routing paths, hop counts, and points of latency or failure between a source and a destination.
Traceroute works by sending packets with incrementally increasing Time to Live (TTL) values. Each router along the path decrements the TTL by one, and when it reaches zero, the router returns an ICMP Time Exceeded message. This process allows the administrator to see each intermediate hop, its response time, and where packets may be delayed or dropped.
The other options do not fulfill this purpose. Ping only verifies basic connectivity and round-trip time but does not show the route taken. Netstat displays active connections, ports, and routing tables but does not trace packet paths. Nslookup is used to resolve DNS names to IP addresses, and ipconfig displays local network configuration information.
The Network+ objectives emphasize traceroute (or tracert on Windows systems) as the primary tool for diagnosing routing issues, asymmetric paths, and network congestion, making it the correct and most appropriate choice in this scenario.
Question #93
Which of the following steps in the troubleshooting methodology comes after using a top-to-top buttom examination of the OSI model to determine cause?
- A . Test in the theory
- B . Establish a plan of action
- C . Verify full system functionality
- D . Identify the problem
Correct Answer: B
Question #93
Which of the following steps in the troubleshooting methodology comes after using a top-to-top buttom examination of the OSI model to determine cause?
- A . Test in the theory
- B . Establish a plan of action
- C . Verify full system functionality
- D . Identify the problem
Correct Answer: B
Question #95
A network engineer configures the network settings in a new server as follows:
IP address = 192.163.1.15
Subnet mask = 255.255.255.0
Gateway = 192.163.1.255
The server can reach other hosts on the same subnet successfully, but it cannot reach hosts on different subnets.
Which of the following is most likely configured incorrectly?
- A . Subnet mask
- B . Gateway
- C . Default route
- D . IP address
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
The default gateway for a network should be an IP address within the subnet, but not the broadcast address. In this case:
IP: 192.163.1.15
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0
This means the network range is: 192.163.1.0 – 192.163.1.255
B
Explanation:
The default gateway for a network should be an IP address within the subnet, but not the broadcast address. In this case:
IP: 192.163.1.15
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0
This means the network range is: 192.163.1.0 – 192.163.1.255
Question #96
Which of the following can support a jumbo frame?
- A . Access point
- B . Bridge
- C . Hub
- D . Switch
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Definition of Jumbo Frames:
Jumbo frames are Ethernet frames with more than 1500 bytes of payload, typically up to 9000 bytes.
They are used to improve network performance by reducing the overhead caused by smaller frames.
Why Switches Support Jumbo Frames:
Switches are network devices designed to manage data packets and can be configured to support jumbo frames. This capability enhances throughput and efficiency, particularly in high-performance networks and data centers.
Incompatibility of Other Devices:
Access Point: Primarily handles wireless communications and does not typically support jumbo frames.
Bridge: Connects different network segments but usually operates at standard Ethernet frame sizes.
Hub: A simple network device that transmits packets to all ports without distinguishing between devices, incapable of handling jumbo frames.
Practical Application:
Enabling jumbo frames on switches helps in environments where large data transfers are common, such as in storage area networks (SANs) or large-scale virtualized environments.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ course materials and networking hardware documentation.
D
Explanation:
Definition of Jumbo Frames:
Jumbo frames are Ethernet frames with more than 1500 bytes of payload, typically up to 9000 bytes.
They are used to improve network performance by reducing the overhead caused by smaller frames.
Why Switches Support Jumbo Frames:
Switches are network devices designed to manage data packets and can be configured to support jumbo frames. This capability enhances throughput and efficiency, particularly in high-performance networks and data centers.
Incompatibility of Other Devices:
Access Point: Primarily handles wireless communications and does not typically support jumbo frames.
Bridge: Connects different network segments but usually operates at standard Ethernet frame sizes.
Hub: A simple network device that transmits packets to all ports without distinguishing between devices, incapable of handling jumbo frames.
Practical Application:
Enabling jumbo frames on switches helps in environments where large data transfers are common, such as in storage area networks (SANs) or large-scale virtualized environments.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ course materials and networking hardware documentation.
Question #97
Which of the following is used to stage copies of a website closer to geographically dispersed users?
- A . VPN
- B . CDN
- C . SAN
- D . SDN
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A Content Delivery Network (CDN) caches website content across multiple geographically distributed servers to reduce latency and improve load times for users worldwide.
Breakdown of Options:
B
Explanation:
A Content Delivery Network (CDN) caches website content across multiple geographically distributed servers to reduce latency and improve load times for users worldwide.
Breakdown of Options:
Question #98
Which of the following are the best device-hardening techniques for network security? (Select two).
- A . Disabling unused ports
- B . Performing regular scanning of unauthorized devices
- C . Monitoring system logs for irregularities
- D . Enabling logical security such as SSO
- E . Changing default passwords
- F . Ensuring least privilege concepts are in place
Correct Answer: A,E
A,E
Explanation:
Disabling unused ports prevents unauthorized access and reduces the attack surface by ensuring that no inactive or unmonitored entry points are available for exploitation. Changing default passwords is critical for security because default credentials are widely known and can easily be exploited by attackers. These techniques are fundamental steps in hardening devices against unauthorized access and ensuring network security.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Exam Objectives and official study guides.
A,E
Explanation:
Disabling unused ports prevents unauthorized access and reduces the attack surface by ensuring that no inactive or unmonitored entry points are available for exploitation. Changing default passwords is critical for security because default credentials are widely known and can easily be exploited by attackers. These techniques are fundamental steps in hardening devices against unauthorized access and ensuring network security.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Exam Objectives and official study guides.
Question #99
Which of the following impacts the availability of a web-based customer portal?
- A . MAC flooding
- B . ARP spoofing
- C . DoS
- D . Rogue devices
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A DoS (Denial of Service) attack directly targets availability, one of the core security goals (CIA triad) emphasized in Network+ (N10-009) security objectives. A web-based customer portal depends on reachable services (web servers, load balancers, DNS, upstream bandwidth). In a DoS, an attacker attempts to overwhelm the portal or its supporting infrastructure―consuming bandwidth, exhausting server resources, or saturating state tables―so legitimate users cannot connect or experience severe degradation. This is the most direct and common scenario where “availability” is impacted for a public web service.
MAC flooding aims to overflow a switch’s CAM table and can lead to traffic being broadcast out ports, which is more commonly associated with enabling sniffing or disruption within a local switched network segment―not typically the primary attack described for a web portal’s availability. ARP spoofing is a local network man-in-the-middle/redirection technique affecting integrity/confidentiality and potentially availability for local hosts, but it is not the best match for a public portal availability impact. Rogue devices can introduce risk, but the option is broad and indirect; DoS is the clearest availability-focused threat.
C
Explanation:
A DoS (Denial of Service) attack directly targets availability, one of the core security goals (CIA triad) emphasized in Network+ (N10-009) security objectives. A web-based customer portal depends on reachable services (web servers, load balancers, DNS, upstream bandwidth). In a DoS, an attacker attempts to overwhelm the portal or its supporting infrastructure―consuming bandwidth, exhausting server resources, or saturating state tables―so legitimate users cannot connect or experience severe degradation. This is the most direct and common scenario where “availability” is impacted for a public web service.
MAC flooding aims to overflow a switch’s CAM table and can lead to traffic being broadcast out ports, which is more commonly associated with enabling sniffing or disruption within a local switched network segment―not typically the primary attack described for a web portal’s availability. ARP spoofing is a local network man-in-the-middle/redirection technique affecting integrity/confidentiality and potentially availability for local hosts, but it is not the best match for a public portal availability impact. Rogue devices can introduce risk, but the option is broad and indirect; DoS is the clearest availability-focused threat.
Question #100
Which of the following layers in the OSI model is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating connections between nodes?
- A . Physical
- B . Network
- C . Session
- D . Transport
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The Session Layer (Layer 5 of the OSI Model) is responsible for setting up, managing, and tearing down sessions between applications. It maintains dialog control and synchronizes data exchange between systems.
Reference: Section 1.1 C OSI Reference Model Concepts C “Layer 5 C Session”
C
Explanation:
The Session Layer (Layer 5 of the OSI Model) is responsible for setting up, managing, and tearing down sessions between applications. It maintains dialog control and synchronizes data exchange between systems.
Reference: Section 1.1 C OSI Reference Model Concepts C “Layer 5 C Session”