Practice Free 220-1202 Exam Online Questions
Question #61
An end user’s laptop is having network drive connectivity issues in the office. The end user submits a help desk ticket, and a support technician is able to establish a remote connection and fix the issue. The following day, however, the network drive is disconnected again.
Which of the following should the technician do next?
- A . Connect remotely to the user’s computer to see whether the network drive is still connected.
- B . Send documentation about how to fix the issue in case it reoccurs.
- C . Escalate the ticket to the next level.
- D . Keep the ticket open until next day, then close the ticket.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Since the issue has recurred after a temporary fix, it is likely a deeper or persistent configuration or server issue. Escalating the ticket to the next tier of support (e.g., network or system administrator) ensures further investigation and permanent resolution. Escalation is part of the standard support protocol when issues reoccur despite initial troubleshooting.
C
Explanation:
Since the issue has recurred after a temporary fix, it is likely a deeper or persistent configuration or server issue. Escalating the ticket to the next tier of support (e.g., network or system administrator) ensures further investigation and permanent resolution. Escalation is part of the standard support protocol when issues reoccur despite initial troubleshooting.
Question #62
A user is unable to use the latest version of an application on a legacy personal tablet.
Which of the following is most likely the reason?
- A . The OS is end-of-life.
- B . Storage space is inadequate.
- C . MDM is blocking updates.
- D . The tablet is infected with malware.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The most likely reason a legacy tablet cannot run the latest version of an app is that the tablet’s operating system is end-of-life (EOL) or otherwise too old to meet the app’s supported OS/version requirements. Quentin Docter explains that an OS life cycle ends when it is no longer supported, and that an OS at end-of-life will no longer receive updates (including feature updates), making it increasingly incompatible with modern software that expects newer OS frameworks and APIs. The All-in-One guide reinforces this by noting that apps may fail to launch or install when they are not compatible with the device’s OS version (or related vendor customizations).
While insufficient storage can also prevent an update, that typically produces an “update failed/not enough space” condition rather than a consistent inability to use the latest version due to platform support; Mike Meyers’ Lab Manual specifically calls out free space as a common cause of update failures. MDM restrictions and malware are possible but are less “most likely” for a personal legacy tablet.
Reference: Quentin Docter C CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide (OS life cycle/EOL); Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz C CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide (app/OS compatibility); Mark Soper C Mike Meyers’ A+ Lab Manual (update failures due to low storage).
A
Explanation:
The most likely reason a legacy tablet cannot run the latest version of an app is that the tablet’s operating system is end-of-life (EOL) or otherwise too old to meet the app’s supported OS/version requirements. Quentin Docter explains that an OS life cycle ends when it is no longer supported, and that an OS at end-of-life will no longer receive updates (including feature updates), making it increasingly incompatible with modern software that expects newer OS frameworks and APIs. The All-in-One guide reinforces this by noting that apps may fail to launch or install when they are not compatible with the device’s OS version (or related vendor customizations).
While insufficient storage can also prevent an update, that typically produces an “update failed/not enough space” condition rather than a consistent inability to use the latest version due to platform support; Mike Meyers’ Lab Manual specifically calls out free space as a common cause of update failures. MDM restrictions and malware are possible but are less “most likely” for a personal legacy tablet.
Reference: Quentin Docter C CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide (OS life cycle/EOL); Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz C CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide (app/OS compatibility); Mark Soper C Mike Meyers’ A+ Lab Manual (update failures due to low storage).
Question #63
The battery on a user’s smartphone discharges quickly during travel. The phone was replaced two weeks ago.
What should the technician do first?
- A . Replace the battery with a higher capacity option
- B . Provide an external battery
- C . Ensure the charging port is working
- D . Look for applications that are reporting the highest utilization
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Apps like GPS or roaming services often drain battery during travel.Checking app utilizationhelps identify battery drain sources.
From QUENTIN DOCTER – COMPTIA A+ COMPLETE study GUIDE:
“Monitoring app activity can reveal high-power usage apps running in the background, especially when mobile data or GPS is active.”
D
Explanation:
Apps like GPS or roaming services often drain battery during travel.Checking app utilizationhelps identify battery drain sources.
From QUENTIN DOCTER – COMPTIA A+ COMPLETE study GUIDE:
“Monitoring app activity can reveal high-power usage apps running in the background, especially when mobile data or GPS is active.”
Question #64
A company computer is being repurposed within an organization. The existing configuration has a static IP address, but it is no longer required.
Which of the following should a technician do to satisfy the network requirements?
- A . Make a DHCP reservation for the computer
- B . Create an exclusion in the existing IP scheme
- C . Switch the NIC settings from manual to automatic
- D . Change the currently assigned static IP
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Switch the NIC settings from manual to automatic, which allows the computer to obtain an IP address dynamically from the DHCP server. When a static IP address is no longer required, reverting the network configuration to DHCP ensures the system integrates properly with the current network design.
According to the Quentin Docter C CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, DHCP simplifies network management by automatically assigning IP addresses, subnet masks, gateways, and DNS settings. Leaving a static IP in place can cause address conflicts or connectivity issues, especially when the device is repurposed.
The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz C All-in-One Exam Guide explains that DHCP reservations are used when a device must always receive the same IP address, which is unnecessary in this scenario. Creating exclusions or manually changing the static IP does not meet the requirement to remove static addressing altogether.
The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that switching the NIC to automatic configuration is the correct way to return a system to standard network operation and avoid manual IP management.
Because the static IP is no longer needed, enabling DHCP by setting the NIC to automatic configuration is the correct solution, making C the correct answer.
C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Switch the NIC settings from manual to automatic, which allows the computer to obtain an IP address dynamically from the DHCP server. When a static IP address is no longer required, reverting the network configuration to DHCP ensures the system integrates properly with the current network design.
According to the Quentin Docter C CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, DHCP simplifies network management by automatically assigning IP addresses, subnet masks, gateways, and DNS settings. Leaving a static IP in place can cause address conflicts or connectivity issues, especially when the device is repurposed.
The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz C All-in-One Exam Guide explains that DHCP reservations are used when a device must always receive the same IP address, which is unnecessary in this scenario. Creating exclusions or manually changing the static IP does not meet the requirement to remove static addressing altogether.
The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that switching the NIC to automatic configuration is the correct way to return a system to standard network operation and avoid manual IP management.
Because the static IP is no longer needed, enabling DHCP by setting the NIC to automatic configuration is the correct solution, making C the correct answer.
Question #65
A support specialist needs to decide whether to install a 32-bit or 64-bit OS architecture on a new computer.
Which of the following specifications will help the specialist determine which OS architecture to use?
- A . 16GB RAM
- B . Intel i7 CPU
- C . 500GB HDD
- D . 1Gbps Ethernet
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The amount of installed RAM is the key factor in determining whether a 64-bit OS is needed. A 32-bit operating system cannot effectively address more than 4GB of RAM. Since this system has 16GB of RAM, a 64-bit OS is required to utilize the full memory.
B. An Intel i7 CPU supports both 32-bit and 64-bit OS installations, so it alone doesn’t determine the need.
C. HDD size does not influence OS architecture selection.
D. Ethernet speed is a network consideration and not related to OS architecture.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 1.4: Given a scenario, choose the appropriate Microsoft OS installation methods and configurations.
Study Guide Section: 32-bit vs. 64-bit system requirements and memory limitations
A
Explanation:
The amount of installed RAM is the key factor in determining whether a 64-bit OS is needed. A 32-bit operating system cannot effectively address more than 4GB of RAM. Since this system has 16GB of RAM, a 64-bit OS is required to utilize the full memory.
B. An Intel i7 CPU supports both 32-bit and 64-bit OS installations, so it alone doesn’t determine the need.
C. HDD size does not influence OS architecture selection.
D. Ethernet speed is a network consideration and not related to OS architecture.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 1.4: Given a scenario, choose the appropriate Microsoft OS installation methods and configurations.
Study Guide Section: 32-bit vs. 64-bit system requirements and memory limitations
Question #66
A technician is securing a newly deployed workstation. Only authorized users should access it.
Which actions should the technician take? (Select two)
- A . Defragment the hard drive
- B . Enable SSH
- C . Enable screensaver locks
- D . Disable iCloud integration
- E . Enable the firewall
- F . Apply the BIOS password
Correct Answer: C,F
C,F
Explanation:
Screensaver locks help protect unattended workstations.
BIOS passwords prevent unauthorized changes at startup or during boot.
From QUENTIN DOCTER – COMPTIA A+ COMPLETE study GUIDE:
“Applying a BIOS password adds a pre-boot security layer. Screensaver locks help protect logged-in sessions during idle times.”
C,F
Explanation:
Screensaver locks help protect unattended workstations.
BIOS passwords prevent unauthorized changes at startup or during boot.
From QUENTIN DOCTER – COMPTIA A+ COMPLETE study GUIDE:
“Applying a BIOS password adds a pre-boot security layer. Screensaver locks help protect logged-in sessions during idle times.”
Question #67
A customer’s laptop will not turn on. The customer is distraught and panicking because the laptop contains family pictures that can never be replaced.
Which of the following communication techniques is most important for the technician to demonstrate in this situation?
- A . The technician should provide the customer with the appropriate SLA
- B . The technician should inform the customer about replacement options for an increased cost
- C . The technician should project confidence and maintain a positive attitude
- D . The technician should be dressed in appropriate business casual attire
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
In emotionally sensitive situations, it is critical that the technicianprojects confidenceand maintains a calm, positive demeanor to reassure the customer.
From All-in-One Exam Guide:
“Confidence and empathy are key when working with distressed users. Demonstrating competence can help ease the customer’s anxiety.”
C
Explanation:
In emotionally sensitive situations, it is critical that the technicianprojects confidenceand maintains a calm, positive demeanor to reassure the customer.
From All-in-One Exam Guide:
“Confidence and empathy are key when working with distressed users. Demonstrating competence can help ease the customer’s anxiety.”
Question #68
A user reports getting a BSOD (Blue Screen of Death) error on their computer at least twice a day.
Which of the following should the technician use to determine the cause?
- A . Event Viewer
- B . Performance Monitor
- C . System Information
- D . Device Manager
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Event Viewer is the primary tool used to investigate system-level errors and logs, including BSODs. When a BSOD occurs, Windows logs the error codes and associated system behavior under “System” logs in Event Viewer. This allows the technician to review crash events, identify error codes (e.g., STOP codes), and pinpoint hardware or driver issues.
B. Performance Monitor is used for real-time performance tracking and trend analysis, not crash logs.
C. System Information displays system specs but not crash logs or events.
D. Device Manager shows device status and driver issues but doesn’t retain error logs related to BSODs.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 3.1: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common Windows OS problems.
Study Guide Section: Troubleshooting BSODs using Event Viewer and system logs
A
Explanation:
Event Viewer is the primary tool used to investigate system-level errors and logs, including BSODs. When a BSOD occurs, Windows logs the error codes and associated system behavior under “System” logs in Event Viewer. This allows the technician to review crash events, identify error codes (e.g., STOP codes), and pinpoint hardware or driver issues.
B. Performance Monitor is used for real-time performance tracking and trend analysis, not crash logs.
C. System Information displays system specs but not crash logs or events.
D. Device Manager shows device status and driver issues but doesn’t retain error logs related to BSODs.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 3.1: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common Windows OS problems.
Study Guide Section: Troubleshooting BSODs using Event Viewer and system logs
Question #69
A technician is creating an MDM policy using hardening techniques that are unique to each user.
Which of the following techniques is the technician using?
- A . A drawn pattern
- B . A fingerprint
- C . A password
- D . A PIV card (corrected from “APIV card”)
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
MDM hardening often includes enforcing stronger authentication on mobile devices. The phrase “unique to each user” points to something inherent to the individual―biometrics―rather than something the user knows (password/pattern) or something they have (PIV/smart card). Quentin Docter explains: “Biometric devices use physical characteristics to identify the user. This type of authentication is considered something that you are,” and lists common implementations including “fingerprint… scanners.” This exactly matches a fingerprint, which is unique per person and commonly enforced via device policies in MDM environments.
Docter also notes mobile devices increasingly implement biometrics for access control, specifically citing “fingerprint access control” adopted by manufacturers. A drawn pattern and a password are knowledge factors and can be shared/observed, while a PIV card is a possession factor (something you have) and can be lost or loaned. Because the question specifies a hardening technique “unique to each user,” the best match is the biometric factor: fingerprint (B).
B
Explanation:
MDM hardening often includes enforcing stronger authentication on mobile devices. The phrase “unique to each user” points to something inherent to the individual―biometrics―rather than something the user knows (password/pattern) or something they have (PIV/smart card). Quentin Docter explains: “Biometric devices use physical characteristics to identify the user. This type of authentication is considered something that you are,” and lists common implementations including “fingerprint… scanners.” This exactly matches a fingerprint, which is unique per person and commonly enforced via device policies in MDM environments.
Docter also notes mobile devices increasingly implement biometrics for access control, specifically citing “fingerprint access control” adopted by manufacturers. A drawn pattern and a password are knowledge factors and can be shared/observed, while a PIV card is a possession factor (something you have) and can be lost or loaned. Because the question specifies a hardening technique “unique to each user,” the best match is the biometric factor: fingerprint (B).
Question #70
A company’s IT department discovers that unauthorized software has been installed on several workstations. The IT manager requests a review and an update of the workstation security posture,
focusing on preventing future unauthorized software installations.
Which of the following should the company do?
- A . Remove account administrative rights
- B . Turn on the workstation firewall
- C . Enable Windows Defender SmartScreen
- D . Install EDR on all devices
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Remove account administrative rights, because unauthorized software installation is most commonly possible when users have local administrator privileges. In Windows environments, installing most applications requires elevated permissions. If users are members of the local Administrators group, they can bypass many built-in security controls and install software without IT approval.
According to the Quentin Docter C CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, the principle of least privilege is fundamental to endpoint security. Users should only be granted the minimum permissions necessary to perform their job functions. Removing administrative rights prevents users from installing unapproved applications and significantly reduces malware risk.
The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz C All-in-One Exam Guide explains that while technologies like firewalls, SmartScreen, and Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) provide important layers of protection, they do not directly stop users from installing software if they already have administrative access. EDR detects and responds to threats, but it does not prevent intentional installation by privileged users.
The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that controlling user permissions is the most effective preventive control against unauthorized changes to a system. Removing admin rights stops the root cause rather than reacting after installation occurs.
Therefore, to prevent future unauthorized software installations, removing account administrative rights is the most direct and effective solution, making A the correct answer.
A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Remove account administrative rights, because unauthorized software installation is most commonly possible when users have local administrator privileges. In Windows environments, installing most applications requires elevated permissions. If users are members of the local Administrators group, they can bypass many built-in security controls and install software without IT approval.
According to the Quentin Docter C CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, the principle of least privilege is fundamental to endpoint security. Users should only be granted the minimum permissions necessary to perform their job functions. Removing administrative rights prevents users from installing unapproved applications and significantly reduces malware risk.
The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz C All-in-One Exam Guide explains that while technologies like firewalls, SmartScreen, and Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) provide important layers of protection, they do not directly stop users from installing software if they already have administrative access. EDR detects and responds to threats, but it does not prevent intentional installation by privileged users.
The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that controlling user permissions is the most effective preventive control against unauthorized changes to a system. Removing admin rights stops the root cause rather than reacting after installation occurs.
Therefore, to prevent future unauthorized software installations, removing account administrative rights is the most direct and effective solution, making A the correct answer.