Practice Free 220-1202 Exam Online Questions
Question #11
Which of the following is a Linux command that is used for administrative purposes?
- A . runas
- B . cmcl
- C . net user
- D . su
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The su (substitute user) command is used in Linux to switch to another user account, most commonly to escalate privileges by switching to the root (administrator) account. It allows administrative tasks to be performed in a terminal session.
D
Explanation:
The su (substitute user) command is used in Linux to switch to another user account, most commonly to escalate privileges by switching to the root (administrator) account. It allows administrative tasks to be performed in a terminal session.
Question #12
A technician needs to provide remote support for a legacy Linux-based operating system from their Windows laptop. The solution needs to allow the technician to see what the user is doing and provide the ability to interact with the user’s session.
Which of the following remote access technologies would support the use case?
- A . VPN
- B . VNC
- C . SSH
- D . RDP
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
The correct answer is VNC (Virtual Network Computing). VNC is a graphical desktop-sharing system that uses the Remote Frame Buffer protocol (RFB) to remotely control another computer. It is platform-independent and widely supported on Linux, which makes it ideal for providing interactive remote support for a Linux-based operating system. It allows the technician not only to view the remote desktop session but also to control it, fulfilling the need to see and interact with the user’s session.
B
Explanation:
The correct answer is VNC (Virtual Network Computing). VNC is a graphical desktop-sharing system that uses the Remote Frame Buffer protocol (RFB) to remotely control another computer. It is platform-independent and widely supported on Linux, which makes it ideal for providing interactive remote support for a Linux-based operating system. It allows the technician not only to view the remote desktop session but also to control it, fulfilling the need to see and interact with the user’s session.
Question #13
The battery on a user’s smartphone discharges quickly when the user travels. The smartphone was replaced two weeks ago.
Which of the following should a technician do first?
- A . Replace the battery with a higher capacity option
- B . Provide an external battery to extend the usage time
- C . Ensure that the charging port is working as expected
- D . Look for applications that are reporting the highest utilization
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
High battery drain is often due to apps running in the background or using GPS during travel. The first step should always be to check battery usage statistics to see if an application is misbehaving.
From All-in-One Exam Guide:
“Travel conditions can increase app activity, especially navigation or social media. Check app battery usage before assuming hardware faults.”
D
Explanation:
High battery drain is often due to apps running in the background or using GPS during travel. The first step should always be to check battery usage statistics to see if an application is misbehaving.
From All-in-One Exam Guide:
“Travel conditions can increase app activity, especially navigation or social media. Check app battery usage before assuming hardware faults.”
Question #14
Which of the following allows users to prevent malware installation and the disclosure of sensitive information?
- A . Secure Boot
- B . Threat education
- C . Email security gateway
- D . Firewall
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Among the options, threat (end-user) education most directly addresses both preventing malware installation and preventing accidental disclosure of sensitive information, because it changes user behavior―the number one target of many attacks. Quentin Docter emphasizes: “By far the best prevention of security threats is the education of your end users regarding common threats,” explaining that the most effective method is teaching users not to open suspicious files and to open only those they’re reasonably sure are malware-free. Docter adds that trained users can better identify Trojans and phishing scams and should also learn guidelines for protecting sensitive information and recognizing social engineering threats.
Docter also states clearly that even when antimalware tools exist, “user education is much more effective” in preventing certain notification-based and trick-based malware installs. While Secure Boot, firewalls, and email gateways are valuable technical controls, they don’t cover the broad human-risk dimension of both malware installs and sensitive data disclosure as effectively as education/training. Hence B is correct.
B
Explanation:
Among the options, threat (end-user) education most directly addresses both preventing malware installation and preventing accidental disclosure of sensitive information, because it changes user behavior―the number one target of many attacks. Quentin Docter emphasizes: “By far the best prevention of security threats is the education of your end users regarding common threats,” explaining that the most effective method is teaching users not to open suspicious files and to open only those they’re reasonably sure are malware-free. Docter adds that trained users can better identify Trojans and phishing scams and should also learn guidelines for protecting sensitive information and recognizing social engineering threats.
Docter also states clearly that even when antimalware tools exist, “user education is much more effective” in preventing certain notification-based and trick-based malware installs. While Secure Boot, firewalls, and email gateways are valuable technical controls, they don’t cover the broad human-risk dimension of both malware installs and sensitive data disclosure as effectively as education/training. Hence B is correct.
Question #15
A technician is setting up a surveillance system for a customer. The customer wants access to the system’s web interface on the LAN via the system’s IP address.
Which of the following should the technician use to prevent external log-in attempts from the internet?
- A . Port mapping
- B . Subnetting
- C . Static IP
- D . Content filtering
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
To prevent external access, the technician should avoid exposing the surveillance system’s port to the public internet. Port mapping (also known as port forwarding) is the method used to control which internal devices and ports are accessible from the outside. By not configuring port forwarding for the device, external login attempts are effectively blocked.
B. Subnetting organizes IP addresses but doesn’t directly restrict access.
C. A static IP ensures consistent addressing but does not secure access.
D. Content filtering is used to restrict web content, not to block access to a web interface.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.2: Compare and contrast security measures and tools. Study Guide Section: SOHO router security ― port forwarding and blocking external access
A
Explanation:
To prevent external access, the technician should avoid exposing the surveillance system’s port to the public internet. Port mapping (also known as port forwarding) is the method used to control which internal devices and ports are accessible from the outside. By not configuring port forwarding for the device, external login attempts are effectively blocked.
B. Subnetting organizes IP addresses but doesn’t directly restrict access.
C. A static IP ensures consistent addressing but does not secure access.
D. Content filtering is used to restrict web content, not to block access to a web interface.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.2: Compare and contrast security measures and tools. Study Guide Section: SOHO router security ― port forwarding and blocking external access
Question #16
A technician is assigned to offboard a user.
Which of the following are common tasks on an offboarding checklist? (Choose two.)
- A . Quarantine the hard drive in the user’s laptop.
- B . Deactivate the user’s key fobs for door access.
- C . Purge all PII associated with the user.
- D . Suspend the user’s email account.
- E . Turn off the network ports underneath the user’s desk.
- F . Add the MAC address of the user’s computer to a blocklist.
Correct Answer: B,D
B,D
Explanation:
User offboarding involves disabling the departing user’s access to company systems and facilities.
Two key tasks typically include:
Deactivating physical access credentials (e.g., key fobs or badges) to prevent unauthorized entry (B).
Suspending or disabling the user’s email account to prevent future use and to retain business communications (D).
B,D
Explanation:
User offboarding involves disabling the departing user’s access to company systems and facilities.
Two key tasks typically include:
Deactivating physical access credentials (e.g., key fobs or badges) to prevent unauthorized entry (B).
Suspending or disabling the user’s email account to prevent future use and to retain business communications (D).
Question #17
An administrator must rename the administrator account on a Windows desktop.
Which tool is best for this?
- A . lusrmgr.msc
- B . devmgmt.msc
- C . gpedit.msc
- D . eventvwr.msc
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The Local Users and Groups Manager (lusrmgr.msc) is the utility for managing user accounts, including renaming the default Administrator.
From Quentin Docter C Complete Study Guide:
“The lusrmgr.msc snap-in allows renaming and managing local user accounts, including the default administrator.”.
A
Explanation:
The Local Users and Groups Manager (lusrmgr.msc) is the utility for managing user accounts, including renaming the default Administrator.
From Quentin Docter C Complete Study Guide:
“The lusrmgr.msc snap-in allows renaming and managing local user accounts, including the default administrator.”.
Question #18
A technician is selecting a remote access method so users can securely access Linux and Windows servers when working from home.
Which of the following should the technician choose to best meet this requirement?
- A . File Transfer Protocol
- B . Virtual private network
- C . Remote Desktop Protocol
- D . Remote monitoring and management
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
The requirement is secure remote access to both Linux and Windows servers while working from home. A VPN is designed to securely extend internal network access across the public Internet. Quentin Docter states that a “virtual private network (VPN) extends your company’s internal network across the Internet,” allowing clients to connect “securely and privately,” and that it creates a secure tunnel “through the process of encryption and encapsulation,” making the remote host appear as part of the internal network with an internal IP.
Mike Meyers’ Lab Manual reinforces that VPNs work by “setting up an encrypted tunnel between the two points―over the open Internet―creating what we call a virtual private network (VPN),” enabling remote users to function as if they were plugged into the office LAN.
FTP is not secure by default and is file-transfer-only (not full network access). RDP is Windows-focused and provides a remote desktop session, not generalized secure access to mixed OS servers. RMM is a management platform for IT monitoring/maintenance, not the primary secure access method for end users. Therefore, VPN (B) best meets the requirement.
B
Explanation:
The requirement is secure remote access to both Linux and Windows servers while working from home. A VPN is designed to securely extend internal network access across the public Internet. Quentin Docter states that a “virtual private network (VPN) extends your company’s internal network across the Internet,” allowing clients to connect “securely and privately,” and that it creates a secure tunnel “through the process of encryption and encapsulation,” making the remote host appear as part of the internal network with an internal IP.
Mike Meyers’ Lab Manual reinforces that VPNs work by “setting up an encrypted tunnel between the two points―over the open Internet―creating what we call a virtual private network (VPN),” enabling remote users to function as if they were plugged into the office LAN.
FTP is not secure by default and is file-transfer-only (not full network access). RDP is Windows-focused and provides a remote desktop session, not generalized secure access to mixed OS servers. RMM is a management platform for IT monitoring/maintenance, not the primary secure access method for end users. Therefore, VPN (B) best meets the requirement.
Question #18
A technician is selecting a remote access method so users can securely access Linux and Windows servers when working from home.
Which of the following should the technician choose to best meet this requirement?
- A . File Transfer Protocol
- B . Virtual private network
- C . Remote Desktop Protocol
- D . Remote monitoring and management
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
The requirement is secure remote access to both Linux and Windows servers while working from home. A VPN is designed to securely extend internal network access across the public Internet. Quentin Docter states that a “virtual private network (VPN) extends your company’s internal network across the Internet,” allowing clients to connect “securely and privately,” and that it creates a secure tunnel “through the process of encryption and encapsulation,” making the remote host appear as part of the internal network with an internal IP.
Mike Meyers’ Lab Manual reinforces that VPNs work by “setting up an encrypted tunnel between the two points―over the open Internet―creating what we call a virtual private network (VPN),” enabling remote users to function as if they were plugged into the office LAN.
FTP is not secure by default and is file-transfer-only (not full network access). RDP is Windows-focused and provides a remote desktop session, not generalized secure access to mixed OS servers. RMM is a management platform for IT monitoring/maintenance, not the primary secure access method for end users. Therefore, VPN (B) best meets the requirement.
B
Explanation:
The requirement is secure remote access to both Linux and Windows servers while working from home. A VPN is designed to securely extend internal network access across the public Internet. Quentin Docter states that a “virtual private network (VPN) extends your company’s internal network across the Internet,” allowing clients to connect “securely and privately,” and that it creates a secure tunnel “through the process of encryption and encapsulation,” making the remote host appear as part of the internal network with an internal IP.
Mike Meyers’ Lab Manual reinforces that VPNs work by “setting up an encrypted tunnel between the two points―over the open Internet―creating what we call a virtual private network (VPN),” enabling remote users to function as if they were plugged into the office LAN.
FTP is not secure by default and is file-transfer-only (not full network access). RDP is Windows-focused and provides a remote desktop session, not generalized secure access to mixed OS servers. RMM is a management platform for IT monitoring/maintenance, not the primary secure access method for end users. Therefore, VPN (B) best meets the requirement.
Question #20
An end user’s computer is unable to start. A technician examines the machine and does not hear any unusual noises but determines that no OS is found.
Which of the following is most likely corrupt?
- A . Basic input/output system
- B . New Technology File System
- C . Trusted Platform Module
- D . Master boot record
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
“No OS found” commonly indicates the firmware can’t locate boot instructions for the installed OS. If the drive isn’t obviously failing (no unusual noises) and BIOS/UEFI settings are reasonable, a classic cause is a corrupt Master Boot Record (MBR) (on MBR-partitioned disks). Mike Meyers’ Lab Manual explains that when BIOS can’t find an OS, causes may include configuration issues or drive problems, but also states: “If the correct drive is already first in the boot sequence, the master boot record… may be corrupt and need to be rebuilt.”
The Lab Manual also explains what the MBR does: the first sector contains boot code that informs the system about installed operating systems, and “without this bit of code, your OS will never load.” The All-in-One guide describes the same: BIOS looks at the first sector for instructions, and without the MBR code, the OS won’t load.
NTFS corruption wouldn’t typically present as “no OS found” at the firmware stage, and TPM issues usually create different security/boot errors. Therefore, MBR (D) is most likely.
D
Explanation:
“No OS found” commonly indicates the firmware can’t locate boot instructions for the installed OS. If the drive isn’t obviously failing (no unusual noises) and BIOS/UEFI settings are reasonable, a classic cause is a corrupt Master Boot Record (MBR) (on MBR-partitioned disks). Mike Meyers’ Lab Manual explains that when BIOS can’t find an OS, causes may include configuration issues or drive problems, but also states: “If the correct drive is already first in the boot sequence, the master boot record… may be corrupt and need to be rebuilt.”
The Lab Manual also explains what the MBR does: the first sector contains boot code that informs the system about installed operating systems, and “without this bit of code, your OS will never load.” The All-in-One guide describes the same: BIOS looks at the first sector for instructions, and without the MBR code, the OS won’t load.
NTFS corruption wouldn’t typically present as “no OS found” at the firmware stage, and TPM issues usually create different security/boot errors. Therefore, MBR (D) is most likely.