Practice Free 220-1202 Exam Online Questions
Question #51
A technician is setting up a Windows server to allow remote desktop connections for multiple users.
Which of the following should the technician configure on the workstation?
- A . Firewall
- B . Computer Management
- C . User Accounts
- D . Ease of Access
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
To allow Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) access, the firewall must be configured to allow inbound connections on TCP port 3389. If the Windows Firewall blocks RDP, users will not be able to connect remotely even if the feature is enabled in system settings.
B. Computer Management allows configuration of services and local users, but not network access.
C. User Accounts is for account setup and control, but enabling remote access requires firewall configuration.
D. Ease of Access is unrelated to remote connectivity―it’s for accessibility features.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.2: Compare and contrast security measures and firewall settings. Study Guide Section: Enabling and securing RDP via firewall settings
A
Explanation:
To allow Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) access, the firewall must be configured to allow inbound connections on TCP port 3389. If the Windows Firewall blocks RDP, users will not be able to connect remotely even if the feature is enabled in system settings.
B. Computer Management allows configuration of services and local users, but not network access.
C. User Accounts is for account setup and control, but enabling remote access requires firewall configuration.
D. Ease of Access is unrelated to remote connectivity―it’s for accessibility features.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.2: Compare and contrast security measures and firewall settings. Study Guide Section: Enabling and securing RDP via firewall settings
Question #52
A user is unable to use the latest version of an app on a legacy tablet.
What is the most likely reason?
- A . The OS is end-of-life
- B . Space is inadequate
- C . MDM is blocking updates
- D . The tablet is infected with malware
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Older tablets may not support newer app versions due to incompatible or unsupported operating systems. App developers often drop support for outdated OS versions.
From Travis Everett C CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide:
“When an app won’t install on an older device, check the OS version. Most apps require a minimum OS level for compatibility and security.”
A
Explanation:
Older tablets may not support newer app versions due to incompatible or unsupported operating systems. App developers often drop support for outdated OS versions.
From Travis Everett C CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide:
“When an app won’t install on an older device, check the OS version. Most apps require a minimum OS level for compatibility and security.”
Question #53
A customer laptop has been shutting down unexpectedly. The customer explains that a blue screen appears just before the laptop turns off, but the screen disappears too quickly to see anything.
Which of the following tools should a technician use to find details about the error?
- A . Performance Monitor
- B . Device Manager
- C . Event Viewer
- D . System Information
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A blue screen or sudden shutdown generates diagnostic records that persist after reboot, and the primary Windows tool to review those records is Event Viewer. Quentin Docter states: “Event Viewer should be the first place you look when you are trying to solve a problem whose solution is not evident,” because the system and applications “will often create an entry… that can be used to… diagnose problems.” He also specifically notes for unexpected shutdowns: “The first place to check is Event Viewer on the System tab,” where kernel and EventLog entries help determine whether the system lost power or shut down abnormally.
Mike Meyers reinforces that Event Viewer is how you read Windows logs (Application, Security, Setup, System) and that the details pane shows information about the selected event, which is exactly what you need when the on-screen error flashes too quickly. Performance Monitor is for counters/trends, Device Manager focuses on hardware status/drivers, and System Information shows configuration―not the crash/shutdown event details. Hence, Event Viewer (C) is correct.
C
Explanation:
A blue screen or sudden shutdown generates diagnostic records that persist after reboot, and the primary Windows tool to review those records is Event Viewer. Quentin Docter states: “Event Viewer should be the first place you look when you are trying to solve a problem whose solution is not evident,” because the system and applications “will often create an entry… that can be used to… diagnose problems.” He also specifically notes for unexpected shutdowns: “The first place to check is Event Viewer on the System tab,” where kernel and EventLog entries help determine whether the system lost power or shut down abnormally.
Mike Meyers reinforces that Event Viewer is how you read Windows logs (Application, Security, Setup, System) and that the details pane shows information about the selected event, which is exactly what you need when the on-screen error flashes too quickly. Performance Monitor is for counters/trends, Device Manager focuses on hardware status/drivers, and System Information shows configuration―not the crash/shutdown event details. Hence, Event Viewer (C) is correct.
Question #54
A utility failure causes a workstation to immediately shut down.
Which of the following would help prevent this from reoccurring?
- A . Surge suppressor
- B . Uninterruptible power supply
- C . Line voltage regulator
- D . Redundant PSU
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A “utility failure” means the building’s AC power source has dropped out (blackout) or sagged severely, causing the workstation to lose power instantly and shut down. The best way to prevent an immediate shutdown during these events is an Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS), which contains a battery and can continue supplying AC power long enough to keep the PC running briefly and allow a graceful shutdown. Mike Meyers’ Lab Manual states that a UPS “continues to supply AC power…during both brownouts and blackouts via a battery,” preventing the computer from instantly losing power when the utility fails. Quentin Docter likewise explains that UPS devices protect against “power sags and even power outages,” using stored battery energy so the administrator (or OS integration) can safely shut down rather than crash off.
A surge suppressor protects from spikes, not outages. A redundant PSU only helps if the PSU fails, and Docter notes it cannot keep a system running during a power outage. A line voltage regulator helps stabilize voltage but doesn’t provide power when utility power is absent.
Reference: Quentin Docter C CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide (UPS vs redundant PSU; UPS protects outages); Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz C CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide (UPS protects during sag/outage with battery); Mark Soper C Mike Meyers’ A+ Lab Manual (UPS supplies power during brownouts/blackouts; surge suppressor limits spikes).
B
Explanation:
A “utility failure” means the building’s AC power source has dropped out (blackout) or sagged severely, causing the workstation to lose power instantly and shut down. The best way to prevent an immediate shutdown during these events is an Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS), which contains a battery and can continue supplying AC power long enough to keep the PC running briefly and allow a graceful shutdown. Mike Meyers’ Lab Manual states that a UPS “continues to supply AC power…during both brownouts and blackouts via a battery,” preventing the computer from instantly losing power when the utility fails. Quentin Docter likewise explains that UPS devices protect against “power sags and even power outages,” using stored battery energy so the administrator (or OS integration) can safely shut down rather than crash off.
A surge suppressor protects from spikes, not outages. A redundant PSU only helps if the PSU fails, and Docter notes it cannot keep a system running during a power outage. A line voltage regulator helps stabilize voltage but doesn’t provide power when utility power is absent.
Reference: Quentin Docter C CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide (UPS vs redundant PSU; UPS protects outages); Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz C CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide (UPS protects during sag/outage with battery); Mark Soper C Mike Meyers’ A+ Lab Manual (UPS supplies power during brownouts/blackouts; surge suppressor limits spikes).
Question #55
A senior administrator asks a help desk technician to run a set of commands on a remote network switch. After running the commands, the technician needs to collect the output and provide it to the administrator.
Which of the following should the technician use to fulfill the administrator’s request?
- A . RDP
- B . WinRM
- C . SSH
- D . VNC
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. SSH (Secure Shell), because SSH is the standard method for secure, command-line-based remote management of network devices, including switches, routers, and firewalls. Network switches typically do not provide graphical interfaces, and administrators interact with them using a command-line interface (CLI).
According to the Quentin Docter C CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, SSH is widely used to securely access and manage network infrastructure devices. It encrypts all communication between the technician’s system and the remote device, protecting credentials and command output from interception.
The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz C CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide explains that SSH allows administrators to execute commands remotely and capture text-based output, which can easily be copied and shared for documentation or escalation. This makes it ideal for fulfilling requests that involve running commands and returning results.
The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that RDP and VNC are graphical desktop-sharing tools typically used for managing workstations or servers, not network switches. WinRM is used for Windows system management, not network hardware.
Because the task involves secure CLI access to a network switch, SSH is the correct and expected tool, making C the correct answer.
C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. SSH (Secure Shell), because SSH is the standard method for secure, command-line-based remote management of network devices, including switches, routers, and firewalls. Network switches typically do not provide graphical interfaces, and administrators interact with them using a command-line interface (CLI).
According to the Quentin Docter C CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, SSH is widely used to securely access and manage network infrastructure devices. It encrypts all communication between the technician’s system and the remote device, protecting credentials and command output from interception.
The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz C CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide explains that SSH allows administrators to execute commands remotely and capture text-based output, which can easily be copied and shared for documentation or escalation. This makes it ideal for fulfilling requests that involve running commands and returning results.
The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that RDP and VNC are graphical desktop-sharing tools typically used for managing workstations or servers, not network switches. WinRM is used for Windows system management, not network hardware.
Because the task involves secure CLI access to a network switch, SSH is the correct and expected tool, making C the correct answer.
Question #56
An employee is trying to connect their company laptop to airport Wi-Fi. A pop-up with the airport logo appeared and was closed quickly. The internet does not work.
What should a help desk technician suggest?
- A . Look for a wall socket with RJ45 and try to connect
- B . Contact the airport IT department
- C . Tell the employee that company policy prohibits connection to public Wi-Fi
- D . Reconnect to the network and read the pop-up carefully
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Public Wi-Fi networks often use captive portals, which require accepting terms or authenticating via the pop-up page before full access is granted. Closing it prematurely stops full connection.
From Travis Everett C All-in-One Exam Guide:
“Captive portals intercept the first HTTP request and present a login or acknowledgment screen. Without completing it, access is denied.”
D
Explanation:
Public Wi-Fi networks often use captive portals, which require accepting terms or authenticating via the pop-up page before full access is granted. Closing it prematurely stops full connection.
From Travis Everett C All-in-One Exam Guide:
“Captive portals intercept the first HTTP request and present a login or acknowledgment screen. Without completing it, access is denied.”
Question #57
A company wants to prevent unauthorized physical access to its mobile devices.
Which of the following should the company do? (Select two).
- A . Disable built-in hotspots.
- B . Configure VPN software.
- C . Install an antivirus application.
- D . Use PIN authentication.
- E . Turn on location services.
- F . Enable screen timeout.
Correct Answer: D,F
D,F
Explanation:
To prevent unauthorized physical access to a mobile device, the company must ensure the device locks quickly and requires an authentication factor before anyone can use it. PIN authentication directly blocks access by requiring a passcode to unlock the device―Quentin Docter lists PIN lock as one of the primary “screen lock” methods used to secure mobile devices, explaining it as the most common unlock method (typically 4C6 digits, sometimes alphanumeric).
Screen timeout (auto-lock) reduces the window in which an unattended phone remains usable; the All-in-One guide notes that systems can be set to an automatic timeout and screen lock, requiring credentials after a short period of inactivity. Mike Meyers’ Lab Manual reinforces that you should “protect your data from access by putting a good screen lock on the device,” and that these locks commonly require a password/PIN/pattern/biometric to regain access after locking.
Hotspots, VPN, antivirus, and location services are valuable, but they do not primarily stop someone holding the device from opening it and accessing data.
Reference: Quentin Docter C CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide (Mobile Device Security: Screen Locks/PIN lock); Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz C CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide (automatic timeout/screen lock); Mark Soper C Mike Meyers’ A+ Lab Manual (screen lock methods protect data from access).
D,F
Explanation:
To prevent unauthorized physical access to a mobile device, the company must ensure the device locks quickly and requires an authentication factor before anyone can use it. PIN authentication directly blocks access by requiring a passcode to unlock the device―Quentin Docter lists PIN lock as one of the primary “screen lock” methods used to secure mobile devices, explaining it as the most common unlock method (typically 4C6 digits, sometimes alphanumeric).
Screen timeout (auto-lock) reduces the window in which an unattended phone remains usable; the All-in-One guide notes that systems can be set to an automatic timeout and screen lock, requiring credentials after a short period of inactivity. Mike Meyers’ Lab Manual reinforces that you should “protect your data from access by putting a good screen lock on the device,” and that these locks commonly require a password/PIN/pattern/biometric to regain access after locking.
Hotspots, VPN, antivirus, and location services are valuable, but they do not primarily stop someone holding the device from opening it and accessing data.
Reference: Quentin Docter C CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide (Mobile Device Security: Screen Locks/PIN lock); Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz C CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide (automatic timeout/screen lock); Mark Soper C Mike Meyers’ A+ Lab Manual (screen lock methods protect data from access).
Question #58
An administrator received an email stating that the OS they are currently supporting will no longer be issued security updates and patches.
Which of the following is most likely the reason the administrator received this message?
- A . Support from the computer’s manufacturer is expiring
- B . The OS will be considered end of life
- C . The built-in security software is being removed from the next OS version
- D . A new version of the OS will be released soon
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Operating systems periodically reach a status known as "end of life" (EOL), at which point the developer (e.g., Microsoft, Apple) ceases to provide security updates, patches, or technical support. When this happens, the OS becomes vulnerable and non-compliant with security best practices, which is why organizations typically receive advance notifications from vendors or support teams.
B
Explanation:
Operating systems periodically reach a status known as "end of life" (EOL), at which point the developer (e.g., Microsoft, Apple) ceases to provide security updates, patches, or technical support. When this happens, the OS becomes vulnerable and non-compliant with security best practices, which is why organizations typically receive advance notifications from vendors or support teams.
Question #59
A user installed a free application from an unofficial application store. Now, their smartphone displays random pop-ups and shows increased data usage. Additionally, the user cannot perform certain actions such as opening banking applications or updating their OS.
Which of the following should the user do first to address the security issues on their smartphone?
- A . Perform a factory reset.
- B . Clear the device cache.
- C . Contact the manufacturer’s support line.
- D . Change all passwords on the device.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The symptoms point strongly to a bootleg/malicious application from an untrusted source: random pop-ups (high number of ads), increased data usage (high network traffic/data-usage warnings), and abnormal restrictions such as failing OS updates or blocking access to sensitive apps (unexpected application behavior). These are specifically listed as common mobile security symptoms associated with malicious apps and untrusted APK sources. When a device shows multiple signs of compromise and normal remediation options (like
A
Explanation:
The symptoms point strongly to a bootleg/malicious application from an untrusted source: random pop-ups (high number of ads), increased data usage (high network traffic/data-usage warnings), and abnormal restrictions such as failing OS updates or blocking access to sensitive apps (unexpected application behavior). These are specifically listed as common mobile security symptoms associated with malicious apps and untrusted APK sources. When a device shows multiple signs of compromise and normal remediation options (like
Question #60
A user reports a critical application issue. The user tells the technician that a former IT employee previously resolved this same issue.
Which of the following steps should the technician take first?
- A . Consult the technician who previously solved the issue.
- B . Escalate the issue to the software manufacturer to develop a patch.
- C . Review the ticketing system for details related to the prior occurrence.
- D . Open a case to document the issue and progress until the issue is resolved.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The best first step is to leverage existing documentation: check whether the issue was previously recorded and resolved, and reuse that known fix (or confirm conditions). Mike Meyers explains ticketing systems capture key information needed to resolve issues, including “problem description,” “progress notes,” and “problem resolution,” and stresses that “Clear, concise writing is critical” because you “won’t be the only tech responding to every ticket.” That is exactly why you review prior tickets first―so you can quickly see what was done previously and apply it consistently.
The All-in-One guide reinforces the same ticketing-system concept and lists the same essential elements (description, notes, resolution) used to streamline troubleshooting and escalation. Consulting the prior technician (A) may be impossible (the employee is gone) and slower than checking documented history. Opening a new case (D) is important, but the question asks what to do first―review the prior occurrence details, then document your current case using what you find.
C
Explanation:
The best first step is to leverage existing documentation: check whether the issue was previously recorded and resolved, and reuse that known fix (or confirm conditions). Mike Meyers explains ticketing systems capture key information needed to resolve issues, including “problem description,” “progress notes,” and “problem resolution,” and stresses that “Clear, concise writing is critical” because you “won’t be the only tech responding to every ticket.” That is exactly why you review prior tickets first―so you can quickly see what was done previously and apply it consistently.
The All-in-One guide reinforces the same ticketing-system concept and lists the same essential elements (description, notes, resolution) used to streamline troubleshooting and escalation. Consulting the prior technician (A) may be impossible (the employee is gone) and slower than checking documented history. Opening a new case (D) is important, but the question asks what to do first―review the prior occurrence details, then document your current case using what you find.