Practice Free 220-1202 Exam Online Questions
Question #51
A technician is troubleshooting a print spooler that fails to start on a Windows 11 desktop computer. The technician determines the root cause is that required dependencies are failing to run.
Which of the following tools is the technician using?
- A . Process
- B . Services
- C . Startup
- D . Performance
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The Service stool in Windows allows a technician to view service dependencies and status. If the print spooler can’t start due to a dependency, Services is the correct tool to inspect and manage them. From All-in-One Exam Guide:
“The Services console allows technicians to view, start, and configure system services, including setting recovery actions and viewing dependencies.”
B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The Service stool in Windows allows a technician to view service dependencies and status. If the print spooler can’t start due to a dependency, Services is the correct tool to inspect and manage them. From All-in-One Exam Guide:
“The Services console allows technicians to view, start, and configure system services, including setting recovery actions and viewing dependencies.”
Question #52
A user receives an unexpected text message containing a link to reset an expired password.
Which of the following social engineering attacks is taking place?
- A . Vishing
- B . Spear phishing
- C . Whaling
- D . Smishing
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Smishing, which is a form of phishing attack conducted via SMS text messages. The key indicators in this scenario are the unexpected text message and the embedded link prompting the user to reset a password. These attacks rely on urgency and fear to trick users into clicking malicious links or providing credentials.
According to the Quentin Docter C CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, smishing attacks often impersonate legitimate organizations such as banks, IT departments, or service providers. The attacker claims that an account action is required, such as resetting an expired password, to prompt immediate user response.
The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz C All-in-One Exam Guide explains that smishing is distinct from other phishing variants based on delivery method. Vishing uses voice calls, spear phishing targets specific individuals via email, and whaling targets high-level executives. Since this attack is delivered via text message, it is classified as smishing.
The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that modern attackers increasingly use SMS because users often trust text messages more than emails. This makes smishing a highly effective and common attack vector.
Because the attack uses SMS with a malicious link, smishing is the correct answer.
D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Smishing, which is a form of phishing attack conducted via SMS text messages. The key indicators in this scenario are the unexpected text message and the embedded link prompting the user to reset a password. These attacks rely on urgency and fear to trick users into clicking malicious links or providing credentials.
According to the Quentin Docter C CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, smishing attacks often impersonate legitimate organizations such as banks, IT departments, or service providers. The attacker claims that an account action is required, such as resetting an expired password, to prompt immediate user response.
The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz C All-in-One Exam Guide explains that smishing is distinct from other phishing variants based on delivery method. Vishing uses voice calls, spear phishing targets specific individuals via email, and whaling targets high-level executives. Since this attack is delivered via text message, it is classified as smishing.
The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that modern attackers increasingly use SMS because users often trust text messages more than emails. This makes smishing a highly effective and common attack vector.
Because the attack uses SMS with a malicious link, smishing is the correct answer.
Question #53
A help desk support technician needs to ensure that the documentation for a software deployment is up to date. The documentation must also include all necessary information for future troubleshooting.
Which of the following should the technician include?
- A . Detailed guides for resolving common issues
- B . Email logs of support queries
- C . Contact information for software vendors
- D . Installation manuals for end users
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Detailed guides for resolving common issues, because effective deployment documentation must support ongoing troubleshooting and support, not just initial installation. Including known issues and resolution steps allows future technicians to resolve problems efficiently and consistently.
According to the Quentin Docter C CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, high-quality technical documentation should include error conditions, common failure points, and step-by-step remediation procedures. This information significantly reduces mean time to resolution (MTTR) and improves service quality.
The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz C All-in-One Exam Guide emphasizes that help desk documentation should evolve over time, incorporating lessons learned from previous incidents. Troubleshooting guides turn deployment documentation into a practical reference rather than a static record.
The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further clarifies that email logs are informal and unstructured, vendor contact information is supplementary, and end-user manuals are not intended for technical troubleshooting. None of these provide actionable guidance for technicians resolving future issues.
Because the goal is to ensure long-term supportability and effective troubleshooting, the most important inclusion is detailed guides for resolving common issues, making A the correct answer.
A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Detailed guides for resolving common issues, because effective deployment documentation must support ongoing troubleshooting and support, not just initial installation. Including known issues and resolution steps allows future technicians to resolve problems efficiently and consistently.
According to the Quentin Docter C CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, high-quality technical documentation should include error conditions, common failure points, and step-by-step remediation procedures. This information significantly reduces mean time to resolution (MTTR) and improves service quality.
The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz C All-in-One Exam Guide emphasizes that help desk documentation should evolve over time, incorporating lessons learned from previous incidents. Troubleshooting guides turn deployment documentation into a practical reference rather than a static record.
The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further clarifies that email logs are informal and unstructured, vendor contact information is supplementary, and end-user manuals are not intended for technical troubleshooting. None of these provide actionable guidance for technicians resolving future issues.
Because the goal is to ensure long-term supportability and effective troubleshooting, the most important inclusion is detailed guides for resolving common issues, making A the correct answer.
Question #54
A technician needs to disable guest log-ins on domain-joined desktop machines.
Which of the following should be used?
- A . Group Policy
- B . Firewall
- C . Microsoft Management Console
- D . MSConfig
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Group Policy is the standard administrative tool for setting user permissions across domain-joined systems.
From QUENTIN DOCTER C COMPLETE Study Guide:
“Use Group Policy to enforce user rights, including disabling guest account access on domain computers.”
A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Group Policy is the standard administrative tool for setting user permissions across domain-joined systems.
From QUENTIN DOCTER C COMPLETE Study Guide:
“Use Group Policy to enforce user rights, including disabling guest account access on domain computers.”
Question #55
A technician is deploying mobile devices and needs to prevent access to sensitive data if the devices are lost.
Which of the following is the best way to prevent unauthorized access if the user is unaware that the phone is lost?
- A . Encryption
- B . Remote wipe
- C . Geofencing
- D . Facial recognition
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Remote wipe is the best option to prevent unauthorized access to data when a mobile device is lost or stolen―especially if the user is unaware of the loss. It allows administrators or mobile device management (MDM) systems to remotely erase all data on the device, rendering it unusable for unauthorized users.
B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Remote wipe is the best option to prevent unauthorized access to data when a mobile device is lost or stolen―especially if the user is unaware of the loss. It allows administrators or mobile device management (MDM) systems to remotely erase all data on the device, rendering it unusable for unauthorized users.
Question #56
A technician is setting up a Windows server to allow remote desktop connections for multiple users.
Which of the following should the technician configure on the workstation?
- A . Firewall
- B . Computer Management
- C . User Accounts
- D . Ease of Access
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
To allow Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) access, the firewall must be configured to allow inbound connections on TCP port 3389. If the Windows Firewall blocks RDP, users will not be able to connect remotely even if the feature is enabled in system settings.
B. Computer Management allows configuration of services and local users, but not network access.
C. User Accounts is for account setup and control, but enabling remote access requires firewall configuration.
D. Ease of Access is unrelated to remote connectivity―it’s for accessibility features.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.2: Compare and contrast security measures and firewall settings. Study Guide Section: Enabling and securing RDP via firewall settings
A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
To allow Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) access, the firewall must be configured to allow inbound connections on TCP port 3389. If the Windows Firewall blocks RDP, users will not be able to connect remotely even if the feature is enabled in system settings.
B. Computer Management allows configuration of services and local users, but not network access.
C. User Accounts is for account setup and control, but enabling remote access requires firewall configuration.
D. Ease of Access is unrelated to remote connectivity―it’s for accessibility features.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.2: Compare and contrast security measures and firewall settings. Study Guide Section: Enabling and securing RDP via firewall settings
Question #57
A user wants to connect a retro gaming console to the internet so that they can participate in online gaming. In order for the console to work, the Wi-Fi connection must adhere to a WPA-protected broadcast.
Which of the following is the best option for the user to implement?
- A . Create a lower-security network exclusively for the console
- B . Set the router to WPA and then back to normal after using the console
- C . Use a wired Ethernet adapter to connect the console
- D . Connect an older wireless router to the existing network
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The best option is to create a lower-security network exclusively for the console. Many retro or legacy gaming consoles only support older Wi-Fi security standards such as WPA or even WEP, and they cannot connect to modern WPA2 or WPA3 networks. Downgrading the entire primary network would significantly weaken overall security, which is not recommended in any environment.
The Quentin Docter C CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide explains that legacy devices often lack firmware support for modern encryption standards and should be isolated rather than integrated directly into secure networks. Creating a separate SSID with reduced security limits exposure while still allowing connectivity for the unsupported device.
The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz C All-in-One Exam Guide emphasizes that lowering security settings on a primary router―even temporarily―introduces unnecessary risk. Switching encryption modes back and forth can also cause configuration instability and expose the network during the downgrade window.
The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further reinforces the concept of network segmentation as a best practice. By creating a dedicated network for legacy or insecure devices, administrators reduce the attack surface and prevent lateral movement to sensitive systems.
Using a wired Ethernet adapter may not be supported by the console, and adding an older router introduces unmanaged vulnerabilities. Therefore, isolating the console on a separate, lower-security wireless network is the safest and most practical solution.
A
Explanation:
The best option is to create a lower-security network exclusively for the console. Many retro or legacy gaming consoles only support older Wi-Fi security standards such as WPA or even WEP, and they cannot connect to modern WPA2 or WPA3 networks. Downgrading the entire primary network would significantly weaken overall security, which is not recommended in any environment.
The Quentin Docter C CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide explains that legacy devices often lack firmware support for modern encryption standards and should be isolated rather than integrated directly into secure networks. Creating a separate SSID with reduced security limits exposure while still allowing connectivity for the unsupported device.
The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz C All-in-One Exam Guide emphasizes that lowering security settings on a primary router―even temporarily―introduces unnecessary risk. Switching encryption modes back and forth can also cause configuration instability and expose the network during the downgrade window.
The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further reinforces the concept of network segmentation as a best practice. By creating a dedicated network for legacy or insecure devices, administrators reduce the attack surface and prevent lateral movement to sensitive systems.
Using a wired Ethernet adapter may not be supported by the console, and adding an older router introduces unmanaged vulnerabilities. Therefore, isolating the console on a separate, lower-security wireless network is the safest and most practical solution.
Question #58
A technician is reviewing an organization’s current incident management policy. The organization uses a third-party vendor to protect the organization’s assets with multiple tools.
Which of the following service types is the organization using?
- A . PaaS
- B . EDR
- C . MDR
- D . XDR
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
MDR (Managed Detection and Response) provides outsourced threat monitoring and response using multiple tools. The use of a third-party provider for protection and incident handling confirms MDR.
From Quentin Docter C CompTIA A+ Study Guide:
“MDR provides 24/7 threat detection and response through outsourced experts using advanced tools across client environments.”
C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
MDR (Managed Detection and Response) provides outsourced threat monitoring and response using multiple tools. The use of a third-party provider for protection and incident handling confirms MDR.
From Quentin Docter C CompTIA A+ Study Guide:
“MDR provides 24/7 threat detection and response through outsourced experts using advanced tools across client environments.”
Question #59
A user renames a .txt file to an .xml file. Windows Explorer shows the filename as Document.xml, but the file properties still show the type as Text Document (.txt).
Which of the following controls enables the user to correctly change the file type?
- A . Indexing options
- B . Format command
- C . Personalization
- D . Hide extensions
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Hide extensions, because Windows File Explorer hides known file extensions by default, which can cause confusion when renaming files. When extensions are hidden, a user may unknowingly change only the visible filename and not the actual file extension.
The Quentin Docter C CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide explains that Windows uses file extensions to determine file type associations. If file extensions are hidden, renaming a file from Document.txt to Document.xml may actually result in Document.xml.txt, even though only Document.xml is displayed.
The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz C All-in-One Exam Guide states that to properly change a file’s extension, users must enable “File name extensions” in File Explorer. This allows the user to see and modify the true extension, ensuring the operating system recognizes the correct file type.
The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that options such as indexing, personalization, or formatting do not affect how Windows interprets file types. Only visibility of file extensions allows accurate renaming.
Therefore, disabling the “Hide extensions for known file types” setting is required to correctly change
the file type, making D the correct answer.
D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Hide extensions, because Windows File Explorer hides known file extensions by default, which can cause confusion when renaming files. When extensions are hidden, a user may unknowingly change only the visible filename and not the actual file extension.
The Quentin Docter C CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide explains that Windows uses file extensions to determine file type associations. If file extensions are hidden, renaming a file from Document.txt to Document.xml may actually result in Document.xml.txt, even though only Document.xml is displayed.
The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz C All-in-One Exam Guide states that to properly change a file’s extension, users must enable “File name extensions” in File Explorer. This allows the user to see and modify the true extension, ensuring the operating system recognizes the correct file type.
The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that options such as indexing, personalization, or formatting do not affect how Windows interprets file types. Only visibility of file extensions allows accurate renaming.
Therefore, disabling the “Hide extensions for known file types” setting is required to correctly change
the file type, making D the correct answer.
Question #60
A Microsoft OS laptop user frequently forgets their password.
Which alternative login method should a technician enable?
- A . Single sign-on
- B . Windows Hello
- C . BitLocker
- D . User Account Control
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Windows Hello allows biometric and PIN-based login, which are easier and more user-friendly than passwords.
From Quentin Docter C CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:
“Windows Hello supports biometric authentication and PINs, providing easier and secure access especially for users who have trouble remembering passwords.”
B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Windows Hello allows biometric and PIN-based login, which are easier and more user-friendly than passwords.
From Quentin Docter C CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:
“Windows Hello supports biometric authentication and PINs, providing easier and secure access especially for users who have trouble remembering passwords.”