Practice Free 220-1202 Exam Online Questions
Which of the following is used in addition to a password to implement MFA?
- A . Sending a code to the user’s phone
- B . Verifying the user’s date of birth
- C . Prompting the user to solve a simple math problem
- D . Requiring the user to enter a PIN
A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) requires at least two different types of authentication factors:
Something you know (e.g., password or PIN)
Something you have (e.g., smartphone or hardware token)
Something you are (e.g., fingerprint or facial recognition)
Option A, sending a code to the user’s phone, is an example of "something you have" ― a physical device that receives a one-time passcode. Combined with a password, this forms a proper MFA
implementation.
B. Date of birth is another knowledge-based factor (like a password), not a second factor type.
C. Solving a math problem is not a recognized authentication factor.
D. A PIN is also "something you know" and does not count as a distinct MFA factor when paired with a password.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.2: Compare and contrast common security measures and authentication technologies.
Study Guide Section: Authentication factors ― password, biometrics, tokens, MFA
An organization is experiencing an increased number of issues. A technician notices applications that are not installed by default. Users are reporting an increased number of system prompts for software licensing.
Which of the following would the security team most likely do to remediate the root cause?
- A . Deploy an internal PKI to filter encrypted web traffic.
- B . Remove users from the local admin group.
- C . Implement stronger controls to block suspicious websites.
- D . Enable stricter UAC settings on Windows.
B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
If unauthorized or non-standard applications are appearing on systems and users are receiving licensing prompts, it’s likely users are installing software themselves. Removing users from the local administrators group will prevent them from installing software without approval and reduce the likelihood of introducing unapproved or malicious programs.
Multiple users clicked a phishing link from a compromised email account. The security team isolates and removes the threat. Then, the management team provides security awareness training to the company.
What step is this?
- A . Provide user education.
- B . Compile lessons learned.
- C . Update the antivirus software.
- D . Perform additional scans.
A
Explanation:
This is part of the user education step after a security incident to prevent future occurrences.
From Quentin Docter C Complete Study Guide:
“User education and awareness is a crucial part of preventing phishing attacks. After an incident, it is vital to train users on recognizing suspicious messages.”
After a recent mobile OS upgrade to a smartphone, a user attempts to access their corporate email, but the application does not open. A technician restarts the smartphone, but the issue persists.
Which of the following is the most likely way to resolve the issue?
- A . Updating the failed software
- B . Registering the smartphone with an MDM solution
- C . Installing a third-party client
- D . Clearing the cache partition
A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Mobile OS updates can sometimes cause compatibility issues with specific apps, including corporate email clients. The most likely resolution is to check for and apply an update to the affected application, especially if it hasn’t been updated to support the latest OS version.
B. Registering with MDM might be required for access but wouldn’t address app crashes due to incompatibility.
C. A third-party client might help, but it’s not the best first step if the default app is expected to work.
D. Clearing the cache can help resolve some minor issues, but updating the app directly addresses
compatibility concerns.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 3.3: Troubleshoot mobile OS and application issues. Study Guide Section: App compatibility and mobile software updates
An administrator is investigating a zero-day vulnerability. If left unpatched, it could severely impact business. The patch requires downtime.
What should the administrator do?
- A . Create a standard change request.
- B . Implement an emergency change.
- C . Immediately freeze all changes.
- D . Continue operations until the next change interval.
B
Explanation:
A zero-day vulnerability demands an emergency change to quickly secure the system, even if downtime is needed.
From Mike Meyers’ Lab Manual:
“Emergency changes bypass standard scheduling to quickly address critical vulnerabilities that pose immediate risks.”
A technician is troubleshooting an issue in which a service runs momentarily and stops at certain points in the process. The technician needs to determine the root cause of this issue.
Which of the following tools should the technician use?
- A . Event Viewer
- B . Task Manager
- C . Internet Options
- D . Process Explorer
A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Event Viewer is the best tool to analyze the root cause of service failures in Windows. It provides detailed logs from system processes, including errors, warnings, and crash reports related to services and applications. When a service starts and stops unexpectedly, Event Viewer will often record the cause, such as dependency failures or access violations.
B. Task Manager shows active processes but doesn’t retain logs or causes of failure.
C. Internet Options is used for configuring browser settings, not troubleshooting services.
D. Process Explorer is powerful but more suited for live monitoring and detailed process trees, not post-failure log analysis.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 3.1: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common Windows OS problems.
Study Guide Section: Log file analysis using Event Viewer
A technician verifies that a malware incident occurred on some computers in a small office.
Which of the following should the technician do next?
- A . Quarantine the infected systems
- B . Educate the end users
- C . Disable System Restore
- D . Update the anti-malware and scan the computers
A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Once a malware incident has been confirmed, the immediate next step is to contain the threat. Quarantining infected systems prevents the malware from spreading to other devices and isolates the malicious code for further analysis or remediation.
B. Educating end users is important but occurs later in the incident response process.
C. Disabling System Restore is part of cleanup, not containment.
D. Updating and scanning should occur after the system is quarantined to prevent further infection
or spread.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.5: Given a scenario, detect, remove, and prevent malware using appropriate tools and methods.
Study Guide Section: Malware removal best practices ― Step 2: Quarantine the infected system
Which of the following concepts should a technician consider when discussing confidential work projects with individuals outside the company?
- A . EULA
- B . EOL
- C . SLA
- D . NDA
D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
An NDA (Non-Disclosure Agreement) is used to ensure confidentiality of sensitive company information, especially when interacting with external parties. From QUENTIN DOCTER – COMPTIA A+ COMPLETE study GUIDE:
“An NDA ensures that confidential information is not disclosed to unauthorized individuals, especially important in external communications.”
SIMULATION
You have been contacted through the help desk chat application. A user is setting up a replacement SOHO router. Assist the user with setting up the router.
INSTRUCTIONS
Select the most appropriate statement for each response. Click the send button after each response to continue the chat.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
● Select reply: "I am happy to assist you today."
Second Chat Response: When the user states that they need to set up basic security settings:
● Select reply: "Is this the first router in your office?"
Third Chat Response: After learning it’s a replacement router and the user is logged into the router’s web page:
● Select reply: "The first thing you need to do is change the default password."
Fourth Chat Response: For the response about password settings:
● Select reply: "Create a new password with an uppercase, a lowercase, and a special character."
Fifth Chat Response: When the router prompts to reboot:
● Select reply: "Yes, reboot please."
Study Guide
Reference: The CompTIA A+ Core 2 guide highlights the importance of changing default credentials and using strong password policies, particularly in SOHO environments where routers are often targeted.
A user reports getting a BSOD (Blue Screen of Death) error on their computer at least twice a day.
Which of the following should the technician use to determine the cause?
- A . Event Viewer
- B . Performance Monitor
- C . System Information
- D . Device Manager
A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Event Viewer is the primary tool used to investigate system-level errors and logs, including BSODs. When a BSOD occurs, Windows logs the error codes and associated system behavior under “System” logs in Event Viewer. This allows the technician to review crash events, identify error codes (e.g., STOP codes), and pinpoint hardware or driver issues.
B. Performance Monitor is used for real-time performance tracking and trend analysis, not crash logs.
C. System Information displays system specs but not crash logs or events.
D. Device Manager shows device status and driver issues but doesn’t retain error logs related to BSODs.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 3.1: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common Windows OS problems.
Study Guide Section: Troubleshooting BSODs using Event Viewer and system logs