Practice Free SY0-701 Exam Online Questions
Question #21
Which of the following agreement types defines the time frame in which a vendor needs to respond?
- A . SOW
- B . SLA
- C . MOA
- D . MOU
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A service level agreement (SLA) is a type of agreement that defines the expectations and responsibilities between a service provider and a customer. It usually includes the quality, availability, and performance metrics of the service, as well as the time frame in which the provider needs to respond to service requests, incidents, or complaints. An SLA can help ensure that the customer receives the desired level of service and that the provider is accountable for meeting the agreed-upon standards.
Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications, under “About the exam”, bullet point 3: “Operate with an awareness of applicable regulations and policies, including principles of governance, risk, and compliance.”
CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, page 14: “Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are contracts between a service provider and a customer that specify the level of
service expected from the service provider.”
B
Explanation:
A service level agreement (SLA) is a type of agreement that defines the expectations and responsibilities between a service provider and a customer. It usually includes the quality, availability, and performance metrics of the service, as well as the time frame in which the provider needs to respond to service requests, incidents, or complaints. An SLA can help ensure that the customer receives the desired level of service and that the provider is accountable for meeting the agreed-upon standards.
Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications, under “About the exam”, bullet point 3: “Operate with an awareness of applicable regulations and policies, including principles of governance, risk, and compliance.”
CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, page 14: “Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are contracts between a service provider and a customer that specify the level of
service expected from the service provider.”
Question #22
While investigating a recent security breach an analyst finds that an attacker gained access by SOL infection through a company website.
Which of the following should the analyst recommend to the website developers to prevent this from reoccurring?
- A . Secure cookies
- B . Input sanitization
- C . Code signing
- D . Blocklist
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Input sanitization is a critical security measure to prevent SQL injection attacks, which occur when an attacker exploits vulnerabilities in a website’s input fields to execute malicious SQL code. By properly sanitizing and validating all user inputs, developers can prevent malicious code from being executed, thereby securing the website against such attacks.
= CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of web application security and common vulnerability mitigation strategies.
B
Explanation:
Input sanitization is a critical security measure to prevent SQL injection attacks, which occur when an attacker exploits vulnerabilities in a website’s input fields to execute malicious SQL code. By properly sanitizing and validating all user inputs, developers can prevent malicious code from being executed, thereby securing the website against such attacks.
= CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of web application security and common vulnerability mitigation strategies.
Question #23
A client demands at least 99.99% uptime from a service provider’s hosted security services.
Which of the following documents includes the information the service provider should return to the client?
- A . MOA
- B . SOW
- C . MOU
- D . SLA
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A service level agreement (SLA) is a document that defines the level of service expected by a customer from a service provider, indicating the metrics by which that service is measured, and the remedies or penalties, if any, should the agreed-upon levels not be achieved. An SLA can specify the minimum uptime or availability of a service, such as 99.99%, and the consequences for failing to meet that standard. A memorandum of agreement (MOA), a statement of work (SOW), and a memorandum of understanding (MOU) are other types of documents that can be used to establish a relationship between parties, but they do not typically include the details of service levels and performance metrics that an SLA does.: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 16-17
D
Explanation:
A service level agreement (SLA) is a document that defines the level of service expected by a customer from a service provider, indicating the metrics by which that service is measured, and the remedies or penalties, if any, should the agreed-upon levels not be achieved. An SLA can specify the minimum uptime or availability of a service, such as 99.99%, and the consequences for failing to meet that standard. A memorandum of agreement (MOA), a statement of work (SOW), and a memorandum of understanding (MOU) are other types of documents that can be used to establish a relationship between parties, but they do not typically include the details of service levels and performance metrics that an SLA does.: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 16-17
Question #24
The internal audit team determines a software application is no longer in scope for external reporting requirements.
Which of the following will confirm management’s perspective that the application is no longer applicable?
- A . Data inventory and retention
- B . Right to be forgotten
- C . Due care and due diligence
- D . Acknowledgement and attestation
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Acknowledgement and attestation involve formal confirmation that an application is no longer in scope for compliance, auditing, or reporting requirements. This typically includes documentation signed by relevant stakeholders confirming that the software no longer processes, stores, or transmits relevant data.
Data inventory and retention (A)is related to managing data assets, not software scope confirmation.
Right to be forgotten (B)pertains to privacy laws (e.g., GDPR), allowing individuals to request data deletion.
Due care and due diligence (C)focus on security best practices rather than software applicability.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Official Study Guide, Security Program Management and Oversight domain.
D
Explanation:
Acknowledgement and attestation involve formal confirmation that an application is no longer in scope for compliance, auditing, or reporting requirements. This typically includes documentation signed by relevant stakeholders confirming that the software no longer processes, stores, or transmits relevant data.
Data inventory and retention (A)is related to managing data assets, not software scope confirmation.
Right to be forgotten (B)pertains to privacy laws (e.g., GDPR), allowing individuals to request data deletion.
Due care and due diligence (C)focus on security best practices rather than software applicability.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Official Study Guide, Security Program Management and Oversight domain.
Question #25
Which of the following would best explain why a security analyst is running daily vulnerability scans on all corporate endpoints?
- A . To track the status of patching installations
- B . To find shadow IT cloud deployments
- C . To continuously the monitor hardware inventory
- D . To hunt for active attackers in the network
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Running daily vulnerability scans on all corporate endpoints is primarily done to track the status of patching installations. These scans help identify any missing security patches orvulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers. Keeping the endpoints up-to-date with the latest patches is critical for maintaining security.
Finding shadow IT cloud deployments and monitoring hardware inventory are better achieved through other tools.
Hunting for active attackers would typically involve more real-time threat detection methods than daily vulnerability scans.
A
Explanation:
Running daily vulnerability scans on all corporate endpoints is primarily done to track the status of patching installations. These scans help identify any missing security patches orvulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers. Keeping the endpoints up-to-date with the latest patches is critical for maintaining security.
Finding shadow IT cloud deployments and monitoring hardware inventory are better achieved through other tools.
Hunting for active attackers would typically involve more real-time threat detection methods than daily vulnerability scans.
Question #26
A company wants to update its disaster recovery plan to include a dedicated location for immediate continued operations if a catastrophic event occurs.
Which of the following options is best to include in the disaster recovery plan?
- A . Hot site
- B . Warm site
- C . Geolocation
- D . Cold site
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A hot site is a fully operational data center equipped with hardware, software, and network connectivity, ready for immediate use after a disaster. It allows near-zero downtime, making it ideal for critical systems needing continuous operations.
Warm sites (B) have some infrastructure but require additional setup time. Cold sites (D) provide space and power but no equipment, leading to longer recovery. Geolocation (C) is unrelated.
Hot sites are a key disaster recovery solution discussed in SY0-701’s Resilience and Recovery domain 【 6:Chapter 9†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide 】 .
A
Explanation:
A hot site is a fully operational data center equipped with hardware, software, and network connectivity, ready for immediate use after a disaster. It allows near-zero downtime, making it ideal for critical systems needing continuous operations.
Warm sites (B) have some infrastructure but require additional setup time. Cold sites (D) provide space and power but no equipment, leading to longer recovery. Geolocation (C) is unrelated.
Hot sites are a key disaster recovery solution discussed in SY0-701’s Resilience and Recovery domain 【 6:Chapter 9†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide 】 .
Question #27
Which of the following would best prepare a security team for a specific incident response scenario?
- A . Situational awareness
- B . Risk assessment
- C . Root cause analysis
- D . Tabletop exercise
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A Tabletop exercise (D)is a discussion-based simulation of an incident scenario. It allows security teams to walk through procedures, responsibilities, and communications in alow-pressure environment, improving readiness without impacting operations.
It is specifically designed to prepare teams for real-world incident handling.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Objectives, Domain 5.4 C “Incident response plans and exercises: Tabletop exercises.”
D
Explanation:
A Tabletop exercise (D)is a discussion-based simulation of an incident scenario. It allows security teams to walk through procedures, responsibilities, and communications in alow-pressure environment, improving readiness without impacting operations.
It is specifically designed to prepare teams for real-world incident handling.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Objectives, Domain 5.4 C “Incident response plans and exercises: Tabletop exercises.”
Question #28
A company makes a change during the appropriate change window, but the unsuccessful change extends beyond the scheduled time and impacts customers.
Which of the following would prevent this from reoccurring?
- A . User notification
- B . Change approval
- C . Risk analysis
- D . Backout plan
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A backout plan provides a documented procedure to revert or undo a change if it fails or causes issues, helping to restore the environment quickly and prevent extended downtime. Having a backout plan in place minimizes impact during failed changes.
User notification (A) informs users but does not prevent failures. Change approval (B) and risk analysis (C) occur before the change and cannot fix issues after failure.
Backout planning is a best practice in Change Management covered in Security Program Management 【 6:Chapter 16†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide 】
D
Explanation:
A backout plan provides a documented procedure to revert or undo a change if it fails or causes issues, helping to restore the environment quickly and prevent extended downtime. Having a backout plan in place minimizes impact during failed changes.
User notification (A) informs users but does not prevent failures. Change approval (B) and risk analysis (C) occur before the change and cannot fix issues after failure.
Backout planning is a best practice in Change Management covered in Security Program Management 【 6:Chapter 16†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide 】
Question #29
A company expects its provider to ensure servers and networks maintain 97% uptime.
Which of the following would most likely list this expectation?
- A . BPA
- B . MOU
- C . NDA
- D . SLA
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
An SLA (Service-Level Agreement) defines the expected performance, availability, uptime, response times, and responsibilities between a provider and a client. The requirement in the scenario―“97% uptime”―is a classic example of an SLA metric. Security+ SY0-701 emphasizes that SLAs outline measurable service expectations so the client can assess compliance and performance.
A BPA (A) outlines business partnership terms, not performance uptime. An MOU (B) documents mutual understanding but is not legally binding and does not include uptime metrics. An NDA (C) protects confidentiality, not availability or service guarantees.
Thus, the correct answer is D: SLA.
D
Explanation:
An SLA (Service-Level Agreement) defines the expected performance, availability, uptime, response times, and responsibilities between a provider and a client. The requirement in the scenario―“97% uptime”―is a classic example of an SLA metric. Security+ SY0-701 emphasizes that SLAs outline measurable service expectations so the client can assess compliance and performance.
A BPA (A) outlines business partnership terms, not performance uptime. An MOU (B) documents mutual understanding but is not legally binding and does not include uptime metrics. An NDA (C) protects confidentiality, not availability or service guarantees.
Thus, the correct answer is D: SLA.
Question #30
During a penetration test, a vendor attempts to enter an unauthorized area using an access badge.
Which of the following types of tests does this represent?
- A . Defensive
- B . Passive
- C . Offensive
- D . Physical
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Attempting to enter an unauthorized area using an access badge during a penetration test is an example of a physical test. This type of test evaluates the effectiveness of physical security controls, such as access badges, security guards, and locks, in preventing unauthorized access to restricted areas.
Defensive and offensive testing typically refer to digital or network-based penetration testing strategies.
Passive testing involves observing or monitoring but not interacting with the environment.
D
Explanation:
Attempting to enter an unauthorized area using an access badge during a penetration test is an example of a physical test. This type of test evaluates the effectiveness of physical security controls, such as access badges, security guards, and locks, in preventing unauthorized access to restricted areas.
Defensive and offensive testing typically refer to digital or network-based penetration testing strategies.
Passive testing involves observing or monitoring but not interacting with the environment.