Practice Free SY0-701 Exam Online Questions
Which of the following involves an attempt to take advantage of database misconfigurations?
- A . Buffer overflow
- B . SQL injection
- C . VM escape
- D . Memory injection
B
Explanation:
SQL injection is a type of attack that exploits a database misconfiguration or a flaw in the application code that interacts with the database. An attacker can inject malicious SQL statements into the user input fields or the URL parameters that are sent to the database server. These statements can then execute unauthorized commands, such as reading, modifying, deleting, or creating data, or even taking over the database server. SQL injection can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data and the system.: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 215 1
A data administrator is configuring authentication for a SaaS application and would like to reduce the number of credentials employees need to maintain. The company prefers to use domain credentials to access new SaaS applications.
Which of the following methods would allow this functionality?
- A . SSO
- B . LEAP
- C . MFA
- D . PEAP
A
Explanation:
SSO stands for single sign-on, which is a method of authentication that allows users to access multiple applications or services with one set of credentials. SSO reduces the number of credentials employees need to maintain and simplifies the login process. SSO can also improve security by reducing the risk of password reuse, phishing, and credential theft. SSO can be implemented using various protocols, such as SAML, OAuth, OpenID Connect, and Kerberos, that enable the exchange of authentication information between different domains or systems. SSO is commonly used for accessing SaaS applications, such as Office 365, Google Workspace, Salesforce, and others, using domain credentials123.
B. LEAP stands for Lightweight Extensible Authentication Protocol, which is a Cisco proprietary protocol that provides authentication for wireless networks. LEAP is not related to SaaS applications or domain credentials4.
C. MFA stands for multi-factor authentication, which is a method of authentication that requires users to provide two or more pieces of evidence to prove their identity. MFA can enhance security by adding an extra layer of protection beyond passwords, such as tokens, biometrics, or codes. MFA is not related to SaaS applications or domain credentials, but it can be used in conjunction with SSO.
D. PEAP stands for Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol, which is a protocol that provides secure authentication for wireless networks. PEAP uses TLS to create an encrypted tunnel between the client and the server, and then uses another authentication method, such as MS-CHAPv2 or EAP-GTC, to verify the user’s identity. PEAP is not related to SaaS applications or domain credentials.
= 1: Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Study Guide | CompTIA IT Certifications 2:.
What is Single Sign-On (SSO)? – Definition from WhatIs.com 3: Single sign-on – Wikipedia 4: Lightweight Extensible Authentication Protocol – Wikipedia:.
What is Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)? – Definition from WhatIs.com: Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol – Wikipedia
A security analyst discovers that a large number of employee credentials had been stolen and were being sold on the dark web. The analyst investigates and discovers that some hourly employee credentials were compromised, but salaried employee credentials were not affected.
Most employees clocked in and out while they were Inside the building using one of the kiosks connected to the network. However, some clocked out and recorded their time after leaving to go home. Only those who clocked in and out while Inside the building had credentials stolen. Each of the kiosks are on different floors, and there are multiple routers, since the business segments environments for certain business functions.
Hourly employees are required to use a website called acmetimekeeping.com to clock in and out. This website is accessible from the internet.
Which of the following Is the most likely reason for this compromise?
- A . A brute-force attack was used against the time-keeping website to scan for common passwords.
- B . A malicious actor compromised the time-keeping website with malicious code using an unpatched vulnerability on the site, stealing the credentials.
- C . The internal DNS servers were poisoned and were redirecting acmetimkeeping.com to malicious domain that intercepted the credentials and then passed them through to the real site
- D . ARP poisoning affected the machines in the building and caused the kiosks lo send a copy of all the submitted credentials to a machine.machine.
B
Explanation:
The scenario suggests that only the employees who used the kiosks inside the building had their credentials compromised. Since the time-keeping website is accessible from the internet, it is possible that a malicious actor exploited an unpatched vulnerability in the site, allowing them to inject malicious code that captured the credentials of those who logged in from the kiosks. This is a common attack vector for stealing credentials from web applications.
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: The course discusses web application vulnerabilities and how attackers can exploit them to steal credentials.
A security analyst is investigating an application server and discovers that software on the server is behaving abnormally. The software normally runs batch jobs locally and does not generate traffic, but the process is now generating outbound traffic over random high ports.
Which of the following vulnerabilities has likely been exploited in this software?
- A . Memory injection
- B . Race condition
- C . Side loading
- D . SQL injection
A
Explanation:
Memory injection vulnerabilities allow unauthorized code or commands to be executed within a software program, leading to abnormal behavior such as generating outbound traffic over random high ports. This issue often arises from software not properly validating or encoding input, which can be exploited by attackers to inject malicious code.: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 course content and official CompTIA study resources.
Which of the following data recovery strategies will result in a quick recovery at low cost?
- A . Hot
- B . Cold
- C . Manual
- D . Warm
D
Explanation:
A warm site offers a compromise between cost and recovery speed. It includes hardware and network infrastructure partially configured, allowing quicker recovery than a cold site but at lower cost than a hot site.
Hot sites (A) enable rapid recovery but at high cost. Cold sites (B) are low cost but slow to recover.
Manual (C) refers to manual processes, typically slower.
Warm sites balance recovery time and cost in disaster recovery planning 【 6:Chapter 9†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide 】 .
A spoofed identity was detected for a digital certificate.
Which of the following are the type of unidentified key and the certificate mat could be in use on the company domain?
- A . Private key and root certificate
- B . Public key and expired certificate
- C . Private key and self-signed certificate
- D . Public key and wildcard certificate
C
Explanation:
A self-signed certificate is a certificate that is signed by its own private key rather than by a trusted certificate authority (CA). This means that the authenticity of the certificate relies solely on the issuer’s own authority. If a spoofed identity was detected, it could indicate that a private key associated with a self-signed certificate was compromised. Self-signed certificates are often used internally within organizations, but they carry higher risks since they are not validated by a third-party CA, making them more susceptible to spoofing.
= CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly the domains discussing Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) and certificate management.
A security administrator is deploying a DLP solution to prevent the exfiltration of sensitive customer data.
Which of the following should the administrator do first?
- A . Block access to cloud storage websites.
- B . Create a rule to block outgoing email attachments.
- C . Apply classifications to the data.
- D . Remove all user permissions from shares on the file server.
C
Explanation:
Data classification is the process of assigning labels or tags to data based on its sensitivity, value, and risk. Data classification is the first step in a data loss prevention (DLP) solution, as it helps to identify what data needs to be protected and how. By applying classifications to the data, the security administrator can define appropriate policies and rules for the DLP solution to prevent the exfiltration of sensitive customer data.: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Data Protection, page 323. CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 8: Data Protection, page 327.
A systems administrator is working on a solution with the following requirements:
• Provide a secure zone.
• Enforce a company-wide access control policy.
• Reduce the scope of threats.
Which of the following is the systems administrator setting up?
- A . Zero Trust
- B . AAA
- C . Non-repudiation
- D . CIA
A
Explanation:
Zero Trust is a security model that assumes no trust for any entity inside or outside the network perimeter and requires continuous verification of identity and permissions. Zero Trust can provide a secure zone by isolating and protecting sensitive data and resources from unauthorized access. Zero Trust can also enforce a company-wide access control policy by applying the principle of least privilege and granular segmentation for users, devices, and applications. Zero Trust can reduce the scope of threats by preventing lateral movement and minimizing the attack surface.
5: This source explains the concept and benefits of Zero Trust security and how it differs from traditional security models.
8: This source provides an overview of Zero Trust identity security and how it can help verify the identity and integrity of users and devices.
Which of the following provides resilience by hosting critical VMs within different IaaS providers while being maintained by internal application owners?
- A . Multicloud architectures
- B . SaaS provider diversity
- C . On-premises server load balancing
- D . Corporate-owned, off-site locations
A
Explanation:
Multicloud architectures use two or more IaaS providers (e.g., AWS + Azure + GCP) to distribute workloads, increase redundancy, and reduce single points of failure.
Security+ SY0-701 emphasizes multicloud strategies for enhancing:
Resilience
Availability
Fault tolerance
Geographic redundancy
Vendor independence
The question specifies:
Critical VMs
Hosted across different IaaS providers
Still maintained by internal application owners
This perfectly matches a multicloud deployment, where organizations maintain control over VM configuration while leveraging multiple cloud vendors for resilience.
SaaS provider diversity (B) applies to application services, not internally managed VMs.
On-prem load balancing (C) does not involve cloud providers.
Corporate-owned off-site locations (D) refer to DR sites, not multi-vendor cloud hosting.
Thus, A: Multicloud architectures is the correct answer.
Which of the following should an organization use to protect its environment from external attacks conducted by an unauthorized hacker?
- A . ACL
- B . IDS
- C . HIDS
- D . NIPS