Practice Free 220-1201 Exam Online Questions
Question #1
Several storms cause mission-critical servers to go offline unexpectedly A server also goes offline suddenly due to haro Nvare failure Upon assessment the company purchases new UPSs to condition power and allow the OSs to shut down gracefully in the event of a power failure However, the UPSs are delayed due to supply chain issues.
Which of the following can balance a cost-effective solution with uptime requirements?
- A . Purchasing backup generators
- B . Increasing input voltage
- C . Installing redundant PSUs
- D . Activating a hot site
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
C. Installing redundant PSUs (Power Supply Units):
Redundant PSUs provide fault tolerance by ensuring that if one power supply fails, another will take over seamlessly.
This is a cost-effective way to increase uptime while waiting for the UPSs to arrive.
Incorrect Options:
C
Explanation:
C. Installing redundant PSUs (Power Supply Units):
Redundant PSUs provide fault tolerance by ensuring that if one power supply fails, another will take over seamlessly.
This is a cost-effective way to increase uptime while waiting for the UPSs to arrive.
Incorrect Options:
Question #2
Which of the following services is used to allocate IP addresses in an enterprise-wide environment?
- A . DNS
- B . Syslog
- C . Telnet
- D . DHCP
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a network service used to automatically assign IP addresses and other network configuration details (such as subnet masks and default gateways) to devices on an enterprise-wide network.
Why Not A (DNS): DNS resolves domain names to IP addresses but does not allocate IP addresses.
Why Not B (Syslog): Syslog is used for logging system events, not IP address management.
Why Not C (Telnet): Telnet is a protocol for remote access, not for IP allocation.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, DHCP concepts.
D
Explanation:
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a network service used to automatically assign IP addresses and other network configuration details (such as subnet masks and default gateways) to devices on an enterprise-wide network.
Why Not A (DNS): DNS resolves domain names to IP addresses but does not allocate IP addresses.
Why Not B (Syslog): Syslog is used for logging system events, not IP address management.
Why Not C (Telnet): Telnet is a protocol for remote access, not for IP allocation.
CompTIA A+ Exam
Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, DHCP concepts.
Question #3
Which of the following internet connection types is the best for extremely high data transfer with symmetrical upload and download speeds?
- A . DSL
- B . Cellular
- C . Fiber
- D . Satellite
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Fiber optic connections provide the highest data transfer rates and symmetrical upload and download speeds. This makes fiber the ideal choice for applications requiring high-speed connectivity, such as video conferencing, large file transfers, and cloud-based workflows.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives C Domain 2.0 Networking C Objective 2.7: Compare and contrast internet connection types, network types, and their features.
C
Explanation:
Fiber optic connections provide the highest data transfer rates and symmetrical upload and download speeds. This makes fiber the ideal choice for applications requiring high-speed connectivity, such as video conferencing, large file transfers, and cloud-based workflows.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives C Domain 2.0 Networking C Objective 2.7: Compare and contrast internet connection types, network types, and their features.
Question #4
Which of the following is a characteristic of an NVMe drive?
- A . M.2 interface
- B . 3.5in (8.9cm) external
- C . 7,200rpm
- D . Molex connector
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) drives commonly use the M.2 interface and provide the highest performance for SSDs.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.2 C Storage devices:
“NVMe drives connect via the M.2 slot and provide the fastest data transfer rates available for storage devices.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Storage Technologies CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.2
A
Explanation:
NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) drives commonly use the M.2 interface and provide the highest performance for SSDs.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.2 C Storage devices:
“NVMe drives connect via the M.2 slot and provide the fastest data transfer rates available for storage devices.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Storage Technologies CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.2
Question #5
A technician receives a tablet that looks like it has a bulge inside. The bulge is pushing the screen away from the backplate. The tablet still turns on when it is plugged in, but the screen looks damaged and turns off when unplugged.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?
- A . Malfunctioning power supply
- B . Damaged charge port
- C . Deprecated battery
- D . Broken screen
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A bulging tablet casing is a classic sign of a swollen lithium-ion battery, often caused by age, overheating, or overcharging. This is a dangerous condition, as swollen batteries can rupture or catch fire. It also explains why the tablet only works when plugged in ― the battery is no longer holding a charge.
Option A: Power supply issues wouldn’t cause physical bulging.
Option B: A bad charge port wouldn’t cause screen damage or physical distortion.
Option D: A broken screen could cause display issues, but not the bulging chassis. CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective
Reference: Objective 1.4: Given a scenario, configure settings and use cases for laptops and mobile devices.
C
Explanation:
A bulging tablet casing is a classic sign of a swollen lithium-ion battery, often caused by age, overheating, or overcharging. This is a dangerous condition, as swollen batteries can rupture or catch fire. It also explains why the tablet only works when plugged in ― the battery is no longer holding a charge.
Option A: Power supply issues wouldn’t cause physical bulging.
Option B: A bad charge port wouldn’t cause screen damage or physical distortion.
Option D: A broken screen could cause display issues, but not the bulging chassis. CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective
Reference: Objective 1.4: Given a scenario, configure settings and use cases for laptops and mobile devices.
Question #6
Which of the following technologies best allows a phone to connect to a point-of-sale terminal for wireless payments?
- A . Bluetooth
- B . NFC
- C . Wi-Fi
- D . Cellular
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Near-field communication (NFC) is a short-distance wireless communication method widely used in mobile payment systems like Apple Pay and Google Pay. Simply placing the device near a compatible terminal initiates the payment process.
Reference: "Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide" C Chapter 24, page 1022.
B
Explanation:
Near-field communication (NFC) is a short-distance wireless communication method widely used in mobile payment systems like Apple Pay and Google Pay. Simply placing the device near a compatible terminal initiates the payment process.
Reference: "Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide" C Chapter 24, page 1022.
Question #7
A technician needs to confirm that desktop PCs can be deployed to a global, remote workforce.
Which of the following specifications should the technician validate?
- A . Input voltage
- B . BIOS language support
- C . Supply chain security
- D . Power efficiency
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Input voltage must be validated to ensure desktop PCs can operate in different regions with varying power standards (e.g., 110V in North America vs. 220V in Europe). Failure to verify input voltage compatibility can lead to hardware damage or operational issues.
Option B (BIOS language support): Incorrect. While language support may be helpful, it is not critical for hardware deployment across regions.
Option C (Supply chain security): Incorrect. This refers to ensuring secure sourcing of components but does not directly impact deployment.
Option D (Power efficiency): Incorrect. Power efficiency may be important for energy savings but is
not relevant to regional compatibility.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Objectives: 3.5 (Power supply requirements)
A
Explanation:
Input voltage must be validated to ensure desktop PCs can operate in different regions with varying power standards (e.g., 110V in North America vs. 220V in Europe). Failure to verify input voltage compatibility can lead to hardware damage or operational issues.
Option B (BIOS language support): Incorrect. While language support may be helpful, it is not critical for hardware deployment across regions.
Option C (Supply chain security): Incorrect. This refers to ensuring secure sourcing of components but does not directly impact deployment.
Option D (Power efficiency): Incorrect. Power efficiency may be important for energy savings but is
not relevant to regional compatibility.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Objectives: 3.5 (Power supply requirements)
Question #8
Which of the following would prevent a virtual machine from communicating with any endpoints on a network or the internet?
- A . VDI
- B . Private cloud
- C . Sandbox
- D . Type 1 hypervisor
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A sandbox is an isolated virtual environment used to test or run applications securely without risk to the host or network. It prevents the VM from communicating with external systems, making it ideal for testing malware or suspicious software.
Option A (VDI): Virtual Desktop Infrastructure allows network communication; it does not restrict it.
Option B (Private cloud): Refers to a cloud deployment model, not a communication barrier.
Option D (Type 1 hypervisor): Runs VMs directly on hardware and doesnotinherently block communication.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective
Reference: Objective 4.1: Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts.
C
Explanation:
A sandbox is an isolated virtual environment used to test or run applications securely without risk to the host or network. It prevents the VM from communicating with external systems, making it ideal for testing malware or suspicious software.
Option A (VDI): Virtual Desktop Infrastructure allows network communication; it does not restrict it.
Option B (Private cloud): Refers to a cloud deployment model, not a communication barrier.
Option D (Type 1 hypervisor): Runs VMs directly on hardware and doesnotinherently block communication.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective
Reference: Objective 4.1: Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts.
Question #9
Which of the following cloud models would multiple organizations in the same industry most likely use?
- A . Public
- B . Hybrid
- C . Community
- D . Private
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A Community cloud is designed for use by several organizations with shared concerns (e.g., security, compliance, jurisdiction). It’s common in industries like healthcare or finance where multiple entities benefit from a common infrastructure with shared policies.
Option A (Public): Open to general public or large industry group ― less secure.
Option B (Hybrid): Mix of public and private ― does not imply industry collaboration.
Option D (Private): Dedicated to a single organization.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective
Reference: Objective 2.1: Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts.
C
Explanation:
A Community cloud is designed for use by several organizations with shared concerns (e.g., security, compliance, jurisdiction). It’s common in industries like healthcare or finance where multiple entities benefit from a common infrastructure with shared policies.
Option A (Public): Open to general public or large industry group ― less secure.
Option B (Hybrid): Mix of public and private ― does not imply industry collaboration.
Option D (Private): Dedicated to a single organization.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective
Reference: Objective 2.1: Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts.
Question #10
Which of the following types of RAM would most likely be used in a server?
- A . SODIMM
- B . ECC
- C . Unbuffered
- D . DDR3
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
ECC (Error-Correcting Code) RAM is commonly used in servers because it can detect and correct memory errors, providing greater stability and reliability for mission-critical environments. From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.2 C Types of RAM:
“Servers often require ECC memory, which can detect and correct single-bit errors, preventing data corruption and increasing system reliability.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Memory Technologies CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.2
B
Explanation:
ECC (Error-Correcting Code) RAM is commonly used in servers because it can detect and correct memory errors, providing greater stability and reliability for mission-critical environments. From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.2 C Types of RAM:
“Servers often require ECC memory, which can detect and correct single-bit errors, preventing data corruption and increasing system reliability.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Memory Technologies CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.2