Practice Free SY0-701 Exam Online Questions
Which of the following is a compensating control for providing user access to a high-risk website?
- A . Enabling threat prevention features on the firewall
- B . Configuring a SIEM tool to capture all web traffic
- C . Setting firewall rules to allow traffic from any port to that destination
- D . Blocking that website on the endpoint protection software
A company decides to purchase an insurance policy.
Which of the following risk management strategies is this company implementing?
- A . Mitigate
- B . Accept
- C . Avoid
- D . Transfer
D
Explanation:
Purchasing insurance is a classic example of risk transfer, where financial risk associated with potential losses is shifted to a third party (the insurer). This strategy does not eliminate the risk but moves the financial burden.
Mitigation (A) reduces risk impact or likelihood through controls, acceptance (B) involves acknowledging the risk without action, and avoidance (C) eliminates the risk by not engaging in the activity.
Risk transfer is a fundamental concept taught in the Risk Management domain of SY0-701 【 6:Chapter 17†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide 】 .
An organization wants a third-party vendor to do a penetration test that targets a specific device. The organization has provided basic information about the device.
Which of the following best describes this kind of penetration test?
- A . Partially known environment
- B . Unknown environment
- C . Integrated
- D . Known environment
A
Explanation:
A partially known environment is a type of penetration test where the tester has some information about the target, such as the IP address, the operating system, or the device type. This can help the tester focus on specific vulnerabilities and reduce the scope of the test. A partially known environment is also called a gray box test1.
: CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 10, page 543.
A systems administrator receives a text message from an unknown number claiming to be the Chief Executive Officer of the company. The message states an emergency situation requires a password reset.
Which of the following threat vectors is being used?
- A . Typo squatting
- B . Smishing
- C . Pretexting
- D . Impersonation
B
Explanation:
Detailed Smishing is a type of phishing attack that uses SMS text messages to deceive recipients into taking actions such as revealing sensitive information. The urgency in the text indicates this vector.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 2: Threats, Section: "Social Engineering Techniques".
Several customers want an organization to verify its security controls are operating effectively and have requested an independent opinion.
Which of the following is the most efficient way to address these requests?
- A . Hire a vendor to perform a penetration test.
- B . Perform an annual self-assessment.
- C . Allow each client the right to audit.
- D . Provide a third-party attestation report.
Which solution is most likely used in the financial industry to mask sensitive data?
- A . Tokenization
- B . Hashing
- C . Salting
- D . Steganography
A
Explanation:
Tokenization replaces sensitive financial data―such as credit card numbers, account numbers, or customer identifiers―with harmless tokens that retain usability but reveal nothing if leaked. This is widely used in the financial industry, particularly in PCI-DSS-regulated systems.
Hashing (B) is one-way and not reversible, making it unsuitable for financial transactions that need original data retrieved. Salting (C) is used to protect hashed passwords, not to mask financial data. Steganography (D) hides data inside media files but is not used for payment processing.
Security+ SY0-701 identifies tokenization as the preferred method for protecting structured sensitive data while maintaining operational functionality.
Thus, the correct answer is A: Tokenization.
Which of the following actions could a security engineer take to ensure workstations and servers are properly monitored for unauthorized changes and software?
- A . Configure all systems to log scheduled tasks.
- B . Collect and monitor all traffic exiting the network.
- C . Block traffic based on known malicious signatures.
- D . Install endpoint management software on all systems.
D
Explanation:
Endpoint management software is a tool that allows security engineers to monitor and control the configuration, security, and performance of workstations and servers from a central console. Endpoint management software can help detect and prevent unauthorized changes and software installations, enforce policies and compliance, and provide reports and alerts on the status of the endpoints. The other options are not as effective or comprehensive as endpoint management software for this purpose.: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 137 1
An administrator assists the legal and compliance team with ensuring information about customer transactions is archived for the proper time period.
Which of the following data policies is the administrator carrying out?
- A . Compromise
- B . Retention
- C . Analysis
- D . Transfer
- E . Inventory
B
Explanation:
A data retention policy is a set of rules that defines how long data should be stored and when it should be deleted or archived. An administrator assists the legal and compliance team with ensuring information about customer transactions is archived for the proper time period by following the data retention policy of the organization. This policy helps the organization to comply with legal and regulatory requirements, optimize storage space, and protect data privacy and security.
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.4, page 1211
CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 3, Question 15, page 832
Which of the following is the most important element when defining effective security governance?
- A . Discovering and documenting external considerations
- B . Developing procedures for employee onboarding and offboarding
- C . Assigning roles and responsibilities for owners, controllers, and custodians
- D . Defining and monitoring change management procedures
C
Explanation:
Effective security governance requires clear assignment of roles and responsibilities, such as owners, controllers, and custodians, to ensure accountability for security-related tasks and data management within the organization. This establishes clear lines of responsibility and authority, which is fundamental to governance frameworks.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Official Study Guide, Domain 5.1: "Assigning roles and responsibilities is fundamental to effective security governance."
Exam Objectives 5.1: “Explain the importance of organizational security policies, standards, and frameworks.”
The local administrator account for a company’s VPN appliance was unexpectedly used to log in to the remote management interface.
Which of the following would have most likely prevented this from happening’?
- A . Using least privilege
- B . Changing the default password
- C . Assigning individual user IDs
- D . Reviewing logs more frequently
B
Explanation:
Changing the default password for the local administrator account on a VPN appliance is a basic security measure that would have most likely prevented the unexpected login to the remote management interface. Default passwords are often easy to guess or publicly available, and attackers can use them to gain unauthorized access to devices and systems. Changing the default password to a strong and unique one reduces the risk of brute-force attacks and credential theft. Using least privilege, assigning individual user IDs, and reviewing logs more frequently are also good security practices, but they are not as effective as changing the default password in preventing the unexpected login.: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 116; Local Admin Accounts – Security Risks and Best Practices (Part 1)