Practice Free SY0-701 Exam Online Questions
A security engineer would like to enhance the use of automation and orchestration within the SIEM.
Which of the following would be the primary benefit of this enhancement?
- A . It increases complexity.
- B . It removes technical debt.
- C . It adds additional guard rails.
- D . It acts as a workforce multiplier.
An IT manager informs the entire help desk staff that only the IT manager and the help desk lead will have access to the administrator console of the help desk software.
Which of the following security techniques is the IT manager setting up?
- A . Hardening
- B . Employee monitoring
- C . Configuration enforcement
- D . Least privilege
D
Explanation:
The principle of least privilege is a security concept that limits access to resources to the minimum level needed for a user, a program, or a device to perform a legitimate function. It is a cybersecurity best practice that protects high-value data and assets from compromise or insider threat. Least privilege can be applied to different abstraction layers of a computing environment, such as processes, systems, or connected devices. However, it is rarely implemented in practice.
In this scenario, the IT manager is setting up the principle of least privilege by restricting access to the administrator console of the help desk software to only two authorized users: the IT manager and the help desk lead. This way, the IT manager can prevent unauthorized or accidental changes to the software configuration, data, or functionality by other help desk staff. The other help desk staff will only have access to the normal user interface of the software, which is sufficient for them to perform their job functions.
The other options are not correct. Hardening is the process of securing a system by reducing its surface of vulnerability, such as by removing unnecessary software, changing default passwords, or disabling unnecessary services. Employee monitoring is the surveillance of workers’ activity, such as by tracking web browsing, application use, keystrokes, or screenshots. Configuration enforcement is the process of ensuring that a system adheres to a predefined set of security settings, such as by applying a patch, a policy, or a template.
Reference =
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Principle_of_least_privilege
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Principle_of_least_privilege
Which of the following security concepts is accomplished with the installation of a RADIUS server?
- A . CIA
- B . AA
- C . ACL
- D . PEM
A security analyst is reviewing alerts in the SIEM related to potential malicious network traffic coming from an employee’s corporate laptop. The security analyst has determined that additional data about the executable running on the machine is necessary to continue the investigation.
Which of the following logs should the analyst use as a data source?
- A . Application
- B . IPS/IDS
- C . Network
- D . Endpoint
D
Explanation:
An endpoint log is a file that contains information about the activities and events that occur on an end-user device, such as a laptop, desktop, tablet, or smartphone. Endpoint logs can provide valuable data for security analysts, such as the processes running on the device, the network connections established, the files accessed or modified, the user actions performed, and the applications installed or updated. Endpoint logs can also record the details of any executable files running on the device, such as the name, path, size, hash, signature, and permissions of the executable.
An application log is a file that contains information about the events that occur within a software application, such as errors, warnings, transactions, or performance metrics. Application logs can help developers and administrators troubleshoot issues, optimize performance, and monitor user behavior. However, application logs may not provide enough information about the executable files running on the device, especially if they are malicious or unknown.
An IPS/IDS log is a file that contains information about the network traffic that is monitored and analyzed by an intrusion prevention system (IPS) or an intrusion detection system (IDS). IPS/IDS logs can help security analysts identify and block potential attacks, such as exploit attempts, denial-of-service (DoS) attacks, or malicious scans. However, IPS/IDS logs may not provide enough information about the executable files running on the device, especially if they are encrypted, obfuscated, or use legitimate protocols.
A network log is a file that contains information about the network activity and communication that occurs between devices, such as IP addresses, ports, protocols, packets, or bytes. Network logs can help security analysts understand the network topology, traffic patterns, and bandwidth usage.
However, network logs may not provide enough information about the executable files running on the device, especially if they are hidden, spoofed, or use proxy servers.
Therefore, the best log type to use as a data source for additional information about the executable running on the machine is the endpoint log, as it can provide the most relevant and detailed data about the executable file and its behavior.
Reference =
https://www.crowdstrike.com/cybersecurity-101/observability/application-log/
https://owasp.org/www-project-proactive-controls/v3/en/c9-security-logging
Which of the following cryptographic methods is preferred for securing communications with limited computing resources?
- A . Hashing algorithm
- B . Public key infrastructure
- C . Symmetric encryption
- D . Elliptic curve cryptography
Which of the following steps in the risk management process involves establishing the scope and potential risks involved with a project?
- A . Risk mitigation
- B . Risk identification
- C . Risk treatment
- D . Risk monitoring and review
B
Explanation:
Risk identification is the first step in the risk management process, where potential threats and vulnerabilities are analyzed to understand their impact on an organization. This includes identifying assets, evaluating threats, and assessing potential vulnerabilities. Risk mitigation: Reducing risk by implementing controls.
Risk treatment: Determining how to handle identified risks.
Risk monitoring and review: Ongoing evaluation of risk controls.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Official Study Guide, Security Program Management and Oversight domain.
The private key for a website was stolen, and a new certificate has been issued.
Which of the following needs to be updated next?
- A . SCEP
- B . CRL
- C . OCSP
- D . CSR
A human resources (HR) employee working from home leaves their company laptop open on the kitchen table. A family member walking through the kitchen reads an email from the Chief Financial Officer addressed to the HR department. The email contains information referencing company layoffs. The family member posts the content of the email to social media.
Which of the following policies will the HR employee most likely need to review after this incident?
- A . Hybrid work environment
- B . Operations security
- C . Data loss prevention
- D . Social engineering
B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth
Operations security (OPSEC) focuses on identifying and protecting sensitive information to prevent unauthorized disclosure. In this scenario, the HR employee failed to safeguard confidential company information, leading to its exposure on social media.
Training in OPSEC would reinforce the need to maintain security best practices, such as locking screens when away from a device and ensuring that sensitive data is not exposed in unsecured locations.
Hybrid work environment policies relate to managing remote and in-office work but do not specifically cover security risks like unauthorized data exposure.
Data loss prevention (DLP) deals with technology-based solutions to prevent unauthorized data transfers but does not address physical security practices.
Social engineering refers to deceptive tactics used by attackers to manipulate individuals, which is not applicable to this situation.
The HR employee should review operations security policies to prevent similar incidents in the future.
A website user is locked out of an account after clicking an email link and visiting a different website Web server logs show the user’s password was changed, even though the user did not change the password.
Which of the following is the most likely cause?
- A . Cross-sue request forgery
- B . Directory traversal
- C . ARP poisoning
- D . SQL injection
A
Explanation:
The scenario describes a situation where a user unknowingly triggers an unwanted action, such as changing their password, by clicking a malicious link. This is indicative of a Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) attack, where an attacker tricks the user into executing actions they did not intend to perform on a web application in which they are authenticated.
Reference = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of web application security and common attack vectors like CSRF.
During a recent log review, an analyst found evidence of successful injection attacks.
Which of the following will best address this issue?
- A . Authentication
- B . Secure cookies
- C . Static code analysis
- D . Input validation
D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth
Input validation ensures that only properly formatted and expected input is accepted by an application, preventing injection attacks such as SQL injection and command injection. Properly validating and sanitizing user inputs can mitigate these types of attacks. Authentication (A) helps verify user identity but does not prevent injection attacks.
Secure cookies (B) protect session data but do not stop injection-based exploits.
Static code analysis (C) can help identify vulnerabilities but does not actively prevent injection attacks in real-time.
Implementing strong input validation can prevent malicious code from being executed, reducing the risk of injection attacks.