Practice Free 220-1201 Exam Online Questions
Question #41
A Wi-Fi router is set up in a central room. A user on the outer edge of the building reports slow connections and intermittent internet drops.
Which of the following actions will solve the issue?
- A . Enabling the 5GHz band
- B . Running the flushdns command
- C . Upgrading the laptop to a Wi-Fi 6 NIC
- D . Installing additional wireless APs around the location
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
CompTIA A+ explains that Wi-Fi issues at the edges of a building are typically caused by weak signal coverage, not client configuration. The recommended solution is to add additional wireless access points (APs) or mesh extenders to expand coverage and eliminate dead zones.
Enabling 5GHz would worsen the problem because 5GHz has shorter range and penetrates walls less effectively than 2.4GHz. Flushing DNS affects name resolution, not wireless signal strength. Upgrading the NIC to Wi-Fi 6 improves maximum throughput but still depends on sufficient signal, which the user does not have.
Additional APs ensure strong signal-to-noise ratio, consistent throughput, and stable roaming all solutions emphasized in the A+ wireless troubleshooting section. Therefore, option D is the correct and CompTIA-aligned fix.
D
Explanation:
CompTIA A+ explains that Wi-Fi issues at the edges of a building are typically caused by weak signal coverage, not client configuration. The recommended solution is to add additional wireless access points (APs) or mesh extenders to expand coverage and eliminate dead zones.
Enabling 5GHz would worsen the problem because 5GHz has shorter range and penetrates walls less effectively than 2.4GHz. Flushing DNS affects name resolution, not wireless signal strength. Upgrading the NIC to Wi-Fi 6 improves maximum throughput but still depends on sufficient signal, which the user does not have.
Additional APs ensure strong signal-to-noise ratio, consistent throughput, and stable roaming all solutions emphasized in the A+ wireless troubleshooting section. Therefore, option D is the correct and CompTIA-aligned fix.
Question #42
A user reports that their desktop PC does not turn on.
Which of the following components would most likely cause the issue?
- A . PSU
- B . GPU
- C . RAM
- D . CPU
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
If a desktop fails to power on entirely, the most probable cause is a faulty Power Supply Unit (PSU). If there are no lights, fans, or POST beeps, the PSU may have failed, cutting off all power to the motherboard and components.
Option B (GPU): Could prevent video output, but the system would still power on and beep.
Option C (RAM): Missing or faulty RAM would cause POST errors but not prevent startup entirely.
Option D (CPU): A bad CPU may cause POST failure, but the system would usually at least power on. CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective
Reference: Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems related to motherboards, RAM, CPU, and power.
A
Explanation:
If a desktop fails to power on entirely, the most probable cause is a faulty Power Supply Unit (PSU). If there are no lights, fans, or POST beeps, the PSU may have failed, cutting off all power to the motherboard and components.
Option B (GPU): Could prevent video output, but the system would still power on and beep.
Option C (RAM): Missing or faulty RAM would cause POST errors but not prevent startup entirely.
Option D (CPU): A bad CPU may cause POST failure, but the system would usually at least power on. CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective
Reference: Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems related to motherboards, RAM, CPU, and power.
Question #43
Which of the following is an advantage of using the 2.4 GHz wireless frequency?
- A . Communication between devices without external power
- B . Security for connections in close proximity
- C . Minimized structural interference
- D . Increased channel options
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract (Aligned With CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Study Guide)
The CompTIA A+ wireless networking section describes key differences between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz Wi-Fi frequencies.
C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract (Aligned With CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Study Guide)
The CompTIA A+ wireless networking section describes key differences between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz Wi-Fi frequencies.
Question #44
Switch#show running-config | section interface
interface gigabitEthernet0/1
ip address 192.168.1.11 255.255.255.0
duplex full
speed 1000
description Sales
interface gigabitEthernet0/2
ip address 192.168.1.12 255.255.255.0
duplex full
speed 1000
description CustomerService
interface gigabitEthernet0/3
ip address 192.168.1.13 255.255.255.0
duplex auto
speed auto
description Marketing
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the performance issues?
- A . The marketing department subnet has an error.
- B . The structured Cat 5e cabling is outdated.
- C . The interfaces are configured with incorrect IP addresses.
- D . The marketing department interface is running at 10/100.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Gigabit Ethernet interfaces are capable of 1000 Mbps, but the actual link speed is determined by negotiation between the switch port and the connected device, along with the quality/type of cabling. In this configuration, Sales and Customer Service ports are manually set to speed 1000 and duplex full, which forces gigabit operation. However, the Marketing port is set to speed auto and duplex auto. If the connected endpoint, patch cable, wall jack, or intermediate wiring for Marketing cannot support gigabit (or has a termination problem), the link may auto-negotiate down to 100 Mbps or 10 Mbps. That creates a clear performance bottleneck for that department compared to the other two ports running at 1 Gbps.
The IP addresses shown are consistent within the same /24 network and do not indicate an obvious addressing problem, so “incorrect IP addresses” is unlikely. “Subnet error” is not supported by the given config, and Cat 5e is generally capable of gigabit at typical distances, so “outdated” cable is not the best explanation from these choices. The most likely cause is Marketing running at 10/100 due to negotiation.
D
Explanation:
Gigabit Ethernet interfaces are capable of 1000 Mbps, but the actual link speed is determined by negotiation between the switch port and the connected device, along with the quality/type of cabling. In this configuration, Sales and Customer Service ports are manually set to speed 1000 and duplex full, which forces gigabit operation. However, the Marketing port is set to speed auto and duplex auto. If the connected endpoint, patch cable, wall jack, or intermediate wiring for Marketing cannot support gigabit (or has a termination problem), the link may auto-negotiate down to 100 Mbps or 10 Mbps. That creates a clear performance bottleneck for that department compared to the other two ports running at 1 Gbps.
The IP addresses shown are consistent within the same /24 network and do not indicate an obvious addressing problem, so “incorrect IP addresses” is unlikely. “Subnet error” is not supported by the given config, and Cat 5e is generally capable of gigabit at typical distances, so “outdated” cable is not the best explanation from these choices. The most likely cause is Marketing running at 10/100 due to negotiation.
Question #45
A user reported performance issues on a computer after a recent OS update A technician is confident that rolling back the system will resolve the issue.
Which of the following steps should the technician take next?
- A . Document the findings.
- B . Investigate any recent infrastructure changes.
- C . Initiate the system restore
- D . Verify full system functionality.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
C. Initiate the system restore:
If the technician is confident that rolling back the system to a previous restore point will resolve the issue, the next logical step is to initiate the System Restore process.
System Restore allows the system to revert to a state before the OS update, which can eliminate the performance issues caused by the update.
Incorrect Options:
C
Explanation:
C. Initiate the system restore:
If the technician is confident that rolling back the system to a previous restore point will resolve the issue, the next logical step is to initiate the System Restore process.
System Restore allows the system to revert to a state before the OS update, which can eliminate the performance issues caused by the update.
Incorrect Options:
Question #46
Which of the following should a company use to implement automatic time synchronization?
- A . DHCP
- B . UTM
- C . NTP
- D . AAA
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
NTP (Network Time Protocol) is specifically designed to synchronize the clocks of networked computers and devices automatically.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.6 C Network services and protocols:
“NTP is used to automatically synchronize system clocks on network devices, ensuring all systems have accurate time.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Networking Protocols CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.6
C
Explanation:
NTP (Network Time Protocol) is specifically designed to synchronize the clocks of networked computers and devices automatically.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.6 C Network services and protocols:
“NTP is used to automatically synchronize system clocks on network devices, ensuring all systems have accurate time.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Networking Protocols CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.6
Question #47
A computer is experiencing random shutdowns. A technician notices that the fans on the computer work but are noisy. The CPU temperature is about 122°F (50°C) when the computer is started but rises to 208°F (98°C) when applications are opened.
Which of the following would most likely fix this issue?
- A . Replacing the power supply
- B . Installing a high-performance heat sink
- C . Adjusting the fan settings
- D . Adding more RAM to the computer
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Excessive heat buildup due to insufficient cooling is a primary cause of unexpected shutdowns. A high-performance heat sink improves thermal transfer, dissipates more heat, and helps maintain CPU temperature within safe limits. When CPU temperatures reach levels like 208°F (98°C), the system may shut down to prevent damage.
Reference: "CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide" by Quentin Docter C Chapter 1, pages 68C71, discusses CPU cooling and heat sink improvements.
B
Explanation:
Excessive heat buildup due to insufficient cooling is a primary cause of unexpected shutdowns. A high-performance heat sink improves thermal transfer, dissipates more heat, and helps maintain CPU temperature within safe limits. When CPU temperatures reach levels like 208°F (98°C), the system may shut down to prevent damage.
Reference: "CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide" by Quentin Docter C Chapter 1, pages 68C71, discusses CPU cooling and heat sink improvements.
Question #48
A customer experiences a power outage at their data center. After the outage, one server with three hard drives in RAID 5 does not come back online. When a technician connects to the server, they receive a message stating that Drive 3 has failed.
Which of the following steps should the technician take next to minimize the risk of data loss?
- A . Replace the defective drive and trigger an array rebuild.
- B . Acknowledge the drive error and allow the system to start normally.
- C . Upgrade the firmware on the drives.
- D . Perform a full drive restore from the most recent backup.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
RAID 5 provides fault tolerance by distributing parity information across all drives, allowing the array to continue operating if one drive fails. In a three-drive RAID 5 set, a single disk failure puts the array into a degraded state where it can still function, but it is at higher risk because losing a second drive before recovery would cause data loss. Since the system reports Drive 3 has failed after a power outage, the best next step to minimize risk is to replace the failed drive immediately and start the rebuild. Rebuilding regenerates the missing data blocks onto the new drive using parity, returning the array to a protected state.
Option B leaves the array degraded and increases exposure to a second failure.
Option C (firmware upgrade) is not a first response in an active failure scenario and can introduce additional risk or downtime.
Option D (restore from backup) is typically used when the array is unrecoverable or multiple drives fail; it is more disruptive and unnecessary when RAID 5 can recover from a single-disk failure. Therefore, replacing the defective drive and triggering an array rebuild is the correct next step.
A
Explanation:
RAID 5 provides fault tolerance by distributing parity information across all drives, allowing the array to continue operating if one drive fails. In a three-drive RAID 5 set, a single disk failure puts the array into a degraded state where it can still function, but it is at higher risk because losing a second drive before recovery would cause data loss. Since the system reports Drive 3 has failed after a power outage, the best next step to minimize risk is to replace the failed drive immediately and start the rebuild. Rebuilding regenerates the missing data blocks onto the new drive using parity, returning the array to a protected state.
Option B leaves the array degraded and increases exposure to a second failure.
Option C (firmware upgrade) is not a first response in an active failure scenario and can introduce additional risk or downtime.
Option D (restore from backup) is typically used when the array is unrecoverable or multiple drives fail; it is more disruptive and unnecessary when RAID 5 can recover from a single-disk failure. Therefore, replacing the defective drive and triggering an array rebuild is the correct next step.
Question #49
A technician connects a WISP modem to a portable router in order to provide an Ethernet connection to a laptop.
Which of the following network types has the technician configured?
- A . WAN
- B . SAN
- C . PAN
- D . MAN
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The correct answer is WAN (Wide Area Network). According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking fundamentals, a WAN is used to connect devices or networks over large geographic areas, typically through an Internet Service Provider (ISP). A WISP (Wireless Internet Service Provider) delivers internet connectivity wirelessly over long distances, which clearly falls under WAN technology.
In this scenario, the technician connects a WISP modem to a portable router to provide Ethernet connectivity to a laptop. The WISP modem represents the WAN link, as it connects the local device to an external network (the internet) managed by the service provider. The portable router then distributes that WAN connection locally via Ethernet.
A SAN (Storage Area Network) is used for high-speed storage communication between servers and storage devices and is unrelated to internet connectivity. A PAN (Personal Area Network) is limited to very short-range connections, such as Bluetooth between personal devices. A MAN (Metropolitan Area Network) covers a city or campus-scale area and is not applicable to a single modem-to-router setup.
CompTIA emphasizes identifying network types based on scope and provider involvement. Since a WISP connection extends beyond the local environment and connects to an ISP, it is classified as a WAN.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide C Network Types, WAN Technologies, and ISP Connectivity
A
Explanation:
The correct answer is WAN (Wide Area Network). According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking fundamentals, a WAN is used to connect devices or networks over large geographic areas, typically through an Internet Service Provider (ISP). A WISP (Wireless Internet Service Provider) delivers internet connectivity wirelessly over long distances, which clearly falls under WAN technology.
In this scenario, the technician connects a WISP modem to a portable router to provide Ethernet connectivity to a laptop. The WISP modem represents the WAN link, as it connects the local device to an external network (the internet) managed by the service provider. The portable router then distributes that WAN connection locally via Ethernet.
A SAN (Storage Area Network) is used for high-speed storage communication between servers and storage devices and is unrelated to internet connectivity. A PAN (Personal Area Network) is limited to very short-range connections, such as Bluetooth between personal devices. A MAN (Metropolitan Area Network) covers a city or campus-scale area and is not applicable to a single modem-to-router setup.
CompTIA emphasizes identifying network types based on scope and provider involvement. Since a WISP connection extends beyond the local environment and connects to an ISP, it is classified as a WAN.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide C Network Types, WAN Technologies, and ISP Connectivity
Question #50
A user goes to their office and forgets their laptop charger. After borrowing a charger, the user notices that the battery is charging slowly.
Which of the following steps should a technician take first to charge the battery normally?
- A . Adjust laptop battery performance.
- B . Try a different charging port.
- C . Use a different power supply.
- D . Replace the laptop battery.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The most likely cause of slow charging after borrowing a charger is that the borrowed adapter is not the correct wattage or is not fully compatible with the laptop. Many laptops will still charge with an underpowered or non-matching adapter, but they often charge very slowly, may display a warning like “plugged in, not charging fast,” or may reduce performance to stay within the available power budget. In CompTIA A+ Core 1 troubleshooting, the first step is to check the simplest and most probable cause, especially when the symptom began immediately after a change. Using the proper manufacturer-recommended charger (correct voltage/amperage and connector type, or correct USB-C PD wattage profile if applicable) restores normal charging behavior in most cases.
Adjusting battery performance settings might reduce power draw but does not address the root cause of insufficient charger output. Trying a different charging port can help if a port is damaged, but the timing strongly points to the borrowed charger. Replacing the battery is the most invasive and least likely first step because the battery was presumably functioning before the charger change. Therefore, the technician should first use a different, known-good power supply with the correct specifications.
C
Explanation:
The most likely cause of slow charging after borrowing a charger is that the borrowed adapter is not the correct wattage or is not fully compatible with the laptop. Many laptops will still charge with an underpowered or non-matching adapter, but they often charge very slowly, may display a warning like “plugged in, not charging fast,” or may reduce performance to stay within the available power budget. In CompTIA A+ Core 1 troubleshooting, the first step is to check the simplest and most probable cause, especially when the symptom began immediately after a change. Using the proper manufacturer-recommended charger (correct voltage/amperage and connector type, or correct USB-C PD wattage profile if applicable) restores normal charging behavior in most cases.
Adjusting battery performance settings might reduce power draw but does not address the root cause of insufficient charger output. Trying a different charging port can help if a port is damaged, but the timing strongly points to the borrowed charger. Replacing the battery is the most invasive and least likely first step because the battery was presumably functioning before the charger change. Therefore, the technician should first use a different, known-good power supply with the correct specifications.