Practice Free SY0-701 Exam Online Questions
Question #141
A penetration tester was able to gain unauthorized access to a hypervisor platform.
Which of the following vulnerabilities was most likely exploited?
- A . Cross-site scripting
- B . SQL injection
- C . Race condition
- D . VM escape
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
VM escape is a vulnerability where an attacker breaks out of a virtual machine guest environment to access the host hypervisor, gaining control over other guests or the host system itself.
Cross-site scripting (A) and SQL injection (B) are application-layer attacks. Race condition (C) is a timing-related vulnerability.
VM escape is a critical threat in virtualized environments discussed under Threats and Vulnerabilities in SY0-701 【 6:Chapter 2†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide 】 .
D
Explanation:
VM escape is a vulnerability where an attacker breaks out of a virtual machine guest environment to access the host hypervisor, gaining control over other guests or the host system itself.
Cross-site scripting (A) and SQL injection (B) are application-layer attacks. Race condition (C) is a timing-related vulnerability.
VM escape is a critical threat in virtualized environments discussed under Threats and Vulnerabilities in SY0-701 【 6:Chapter 2†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide 】 .
Question #142
A network administrator wants to ensure that network traffic is highly secure while in transit.
Which of the following actions best describes the actions the network administrator should take?
- A . Ensure that NAC is enforced on all network segments, and confirm that firewalls have updated policies to block unauthorized traffic.
- B . Ensure only TLS and other encrypted protocols are selected for use on the network, and only permit authorized traffic via secure protocols.
- C . Configure the perimeter IPS to block inbound HTTPS directory traversal traffic, and verify that signatures are updated on a daily basis.
- D . Ensure the EDR software monitors for unauthorized applications that could be used by threat actors, and configure alerts for the security team.
Correct Answer: B
Question #143
Which of the following actions best addresses a vulnerability found on a company’s web server?
- A . Patching
- B . Segmentation
- C . Decommissioning
- D . Monitoring
Correct Answer: A
Question #144
Which of the following is a type of vulnerability that involves inserting scripts into web-based applications in order to take control of the client’s web browser?
- A . SQL injection
- B . Cross-site scripting
- C . Zero-day exploit
- D . On-path attack
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Cross-site scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities allow attackers to inject malicious scripts into a website, which are then executed in the user’s web browser, potentially leading to data theft or session hijacking.: Security+ SY0-701 Course Content, Security+ SY0-601 Book.
B
Explanation:
Cross-site scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities allow attackers to inject malicious scripts into a website, which are then executed in the user’s web browser, potentially leading to data theft or session hijacking.: Security+ SY0-701 Course Content, Security+ SY0-601 Book.
Question #145
A company recently decided to allow employees to work remotely. The company wants to protect us data without using a VPN.
Which of the following technologies should the company Implement?
- A . Secure web gateway
- B . Virtual private cloud end point
- C . Deep packet Inspection
- D . Next-gene ration firewall
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A Secure Web Gateway (SWG) protects users by filtering unwanted software/malware from user-initiated web traffic and enforcing corporate and regulatory policy compliance. This technology allows the company to secure remote users’ data and web traffic without relying on a VPN, making it ideal for organizations supporting remote work.
= CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of network security and remote access technologies.
A
Explanation:
A Secure Web Gateway (SWG) protects users by filtering unwanted software/malware from user-initiated web traffic and enforcing corporate and regulatory policy compliance. This technology allows the company to secure remote users’ data and web traffic without relying on a VPN, making it ideal for organizations supporting remote work.
= CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of network security and remote access technologies.
Question #146
A company receives an alert that a widely used network device vendor has been banned by the government.
What will general counsel most likely be concerned with during hardware refresh?
- A . Sanctions
- B . Data sovereignty
- C . Cost of replacement
- D . Loss of license
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
When the government bans a vendor, the legal concern is sanctions―laws that restrict purchasing, using, or importing products from certain companies or countries. The general counsel’s job is to ensure the organization is not violating federal restrictions, export controls, trade compliance laws, or sanctions lists such as OFAC or government procurement bans.
Security+ SY0-701 notes that legal and regulatory compliance is a critical part of risk management, especially when handling prohibited vendors or technologies. Continued use of banned devices could expose the organization to legal penalties, fines, or federal investigation.
Data sovereignty (B) refers to data storage location laws, not hardware bans. Cost of replacement (C) is an operational concern, not a legal one. Loss of license (D) typically applies to software, not network hardware.
Therefore, the general counsel’s primary concern is A: Sanctions.
A
Explanation:
When the government bans a vendor, the legal concern is sanctions―laws that restrict purchasing, using, or importing products from certain companies or countries. The general counsel’s job is to ensure the organization is not violating federal restrictions, export controls, trade compliance laws, or sanctions lists such as OFAC or government procurement bans.
Security+ SY0-701 notes that legal and regulatory compliance is a critical part of risk management, especially when handling prohibited vendors or technologies. Continued use of banned devices could expose the organization to legal penalties, fines, or federal investigation.
Data sovereignty (B) refers to data storage location laws, not hardware bans. Cost of replacement (C) is an operational concern, not a legal one. Loss of license (D) typically applies to software, not network hardware.
Therefore, the general counsel’s primary concern is A: Sanctions.
Question #147
A client asked a security company to provide a document outlining the project, the cost, and the completion time frame.
Which of the following documents should the company provide to the client?
- A . MSA
- B . SLA
- C . BPA
- D . SOW
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
An ISOW is a document that outlines the project, the cost, and the completion time frame for a security company to provide a service to a client. ISOW stands for Information Security Operations Work, and it is a type of contract that specifies the scope, deliverables, milestones, and payment terms of a security project. An ISOW is usually used for one-time or short-term projects that have a clear and defined objective and outcome. For example, an ISOW can be used for a security assessment, a penetration test, a security audit, or a security training.
The other options are not correct because they are not documents that outline the project, the cost, and the completion time frame for a security company to provide a service to a client. A MSA is a master service agreement, which is a type of contract that establishes the general terms and conditions for a long-term or ongoing relationship between a security company and a client. A MSA does not specify the details of each individual project, but rather sets the framework for future projects that will be governed by separate statements of work (SOWs). A SLA is a service level agreement, which is a type of contract that defines the quality and performance standards for a security service provided by a security company to a client. A SLA usually includes the metrics, targets, responsibilities, and penalties for measuring and ensuring the service level. A BPA is a business partnership agreement, which is a type of contract that establishes the roles and expectations for a strategic alliance between two or more security companies that collaborate to provide a joint service to a client. A BPA usually covers the objectives, benefits, risks, and obligations of the partnership. = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 8: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 387. Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 8.2: Compliance and Controls, video: Contracts and Agreements (5:12).
D
Explanation:
An ISOW is a document that outlines the project, the cost, and the completion time frame for a security company to provide a service to a client. ISOW stands for Information Security Operations Work, and it is a type of contract that specifies the scope, deliverables, milestones, and payment terms of a security project. An ISOW is usually used for one-time or short-term projects that have a clear and defined objective and outcome. For example, an ISOW can be used for a security assessment, a penetration test, a security audit, or a security training.
The other options are not correct because they are not documents that outline the project, the cost, and the completion time frame for a security company to provide a service to a client. A MSA is a master service agreement, which is a type of contract that establishes the general terms and conditions for a long-term or ongoing relationship between a security company and a client. A MSA does not specify the details of each individual project, but rather sets the framework for future projects that will be governed by separate statements of work (SOWs). A SLA is a service level agreement, which is a type of contract that defines the quality and performance standards for a security service provided by a security company to a client. A SLA usually includes the metrics, targets, responsibilities, and penalties for measuring and ensuring the service level. A BPA is a business partnership agreement, which is a type of contract that establishes the roles and expectations for a strategic alliance between two or more security companies that collaborate to provide a joint service to a client. A BPA usually covers the objectives, benefits, risks, and obligations of the partnership. = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 8: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 387. Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 8.2: Compliance and Controls, video: Contracts and Agreements (5:12).
Question #148
45.101.121 —– [28/Jul/2022:10:27:22 -0300] "GET /query.php?q=mp3%20players I HTTP/1.0" 200 14650
Which of the following should the analyst do first?
- A . Implement a WAF
- B . Disable the query .php script
- C . Block brute-force attempts on temporary users
- D . Check the users table for new accounts
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The logs show an SQL injection attack. The first step is to verify if new accounts have been created, indicating a successful injection.
D
Explanation:
The logs show an SQL injection attack. The first step is to verify if new accounts have been created, indicating a successful injection.
Question #149
A user needs to complete training at https://comptiatraining.com. After manually entering the URL, the user sees that the accessed website is noticeably different from the standard company website.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the difference?
- A . Cross-site scripting
- B . Pretexting
- C . Typo squatting
- D . Vishing
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Typo squatting (also known as URL hijacking) is a type of attack where cybercriminals register domain names similar to legitimate sites but with slight misspellings (e.g., comptiatraning.com instead of comptiatraining.com). Attackers use these fake sites to steal credentials or distribute malware. Since the user manually entered the URL and reached an unexpected website, this strongly indicates a typo squatting attack.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Official Study Guide, Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations domain.
C
Explanation:
Typo squatting (also known as URL hijacking) is a type of attack where cybercriminals register domain names similar to legitimate sites but with slight misspellings (e.g., comptiatraning.com instead of comptiatraining.com). Attackers use these fake sites to steal credentials or distribute malware. Since the user manually entered the URL and reached an unexpected website, this strongly indicates a typo squatting attack.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Official Study Guide, Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations domain.
Question #150
Which of the following tools can assist with detecting an employee who has accidentally emailed a file containing a customer’s PII?
- A . SCAP
- B . Net Flow
- C . Antivirus
- D . DLP
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
DLP stands for Data Loss Prevention, which is a tool that can assist with detecting and preventing the unauthorized transmission or leakage of sensitive data, such as a customer’s PII (Personally Identifiable Information). DLP can monitor, filter, and block data in motion (such as emails), data at rest (such as files), and data in use (such as applications). DLP can also alert the sender, the recipient, or the administrator of the data breach, and apply remediation actions, such as encryption, quarantine, or deletion. DLP can help an organization comply with data protection regulations, such as GDPR, HIPAA, or PCI DSS, and protect its reputation and assets. = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 78. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.5, page 11.
D
Explanation:
DLP stands for Data Loss Prevention, which is a tool that can assist with detecting and preventing the unauthorized transmission or leakage of sensitive data, such as a customer’s PII (Personally Identifiable Information). DLP can monitor, filter, and block data in motion (such as emails), data at rest (such as files), and data in use (such as applications). DLP can also alert the sender, the recipient, or the administrator of the data breach, and apply remediation actions, such as encryption, quarantine, or deletion. DLP can help an organization comply with data protection regulations, such as GDPR, HIPAA, or PCI DSS, and protect its reputation and assets. = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 78. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.5, page 11.