Practice Free APM-PFQ Exam Online Questions
Understanding who stakeholders are and their needs is a key duty of
- A . the quality manager.
- B . the key users,
- C . the project manager.
- D . the business sponsor.
Which of the following would be considered most important when carrying out detailed evaluation of a change?
- A . Impact of change on baseline, risks and business case.
- B . The number of extra people required to deliver the change.
- C . How the change will be reported when it is implemented into the project.
- D . The configuration requirements Of the change when implemented into the project,
You have been asked to review the project’s quality management plan and in particular the elements of the plan most relevant to quality control.
Which one of the following will be your primary focus for consideration?
- A . The development of a. strategy for the management of quality in the project.
- B . Supplying the client with evidence of control to ISO 9000:2000.
- C . review of whether underlying processes and way of working are leading towards product deliverables of the right quality.
- D . The agreed methods of inspection, measurement and testing to verify that the project outputs meet acceptance criteria defined during quality planning.
How is ‘quality’ best defined?
- A . The process of evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.
- B . The fitness for purpose or the degree of conformance of the outputs of a process or the process itself to requirements.
- C . discipline for ensuring the outputs, benefits and the processes by which they are delivered meet stakeholder requirements and are fit for purpose.
- D . The satisfaction of stakeholder needs measured by the success criteria as identified and agreed at the start of the project.
What is the term given to the senior management team that set the strategic. direction for a project?
- A . Project management office.
- B . Change control board.
- C . Project steering group.
- D . Programme director.
If planning a meeting where there were likely to be stakeholders with widely different levels of knowledge and experience attending, what practical proactive measure could the project manager take to reduce the impact of communication barriers?
- A . Ensure that the meeting room was reserved for a longer period than normal.
- B . Have a number of meetings where some would be technical and some non-technical.
- C . Aim for a common level of discussion avoiding too technical discussions.
- D . Ensure that a glossary of technical terms was made available in advance
Which of the following is a difference between deployment baselines in linear life cycles and iterative life cycles?
- A . Linear project life cycles set the deployment baseline for the whole project.
- B . In an iterative project life cycle the scope and quality are fixed in the deployment baseline.
- C . Only deployment baselines in iterative life cycles have an integrated baseline review.
- D . Only deployment baselines in linear life cycles have an integrated baseline review
To be fully effective, the project manager:
- A . must take into consideration the internal and external environments.
- B . need only deal with the internal environment since the sponsor will deal with the external environment.
- C . should manage the external stakeholders and external environment.
- D . must liaise with regulating bodies to ensure requirements include the latest legislation.
When is it best to carry out a benefit review?
- A . At 6 – 12 months after handover.
- B . At various stages prior to handover.
- C . At the concept phase when developing the business case
- D . At various stages through deployment
A key output of a well-controlled configuration management process is:
- A . documented traceability between versions of each configuration item.
- B . that the project is most likely to meet its success criteria.
- C . documented evidence of all project changes: proposed. authorised, rejected or deferred.
- D . an agreed point after which no further changes to scope will be considered.