Practice Free 312-38 Exam Online Questions
Question #41
Which of the following is an example of Indicators of Attack?
- A . Malware
- B . Signatures
- C . Exploits
- D . Remote code execution
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Indicators of Attack (IOAs) are behaviors or actions that suggest an attacker’s intent to compromise a system. Unlike Indicators of Compromise (IOCs), which are evidence that an attack has already occurred, IOAs focus on the detection of attack attempts before they can cause harm. Exploits are a prime example of IOAs because they are tools or techniques used to take advantage of vulnerabilities in systems, often before any actual damage is done. This can include exploiting security holes, system weaknesses, or software bugs to gain unauthorized access or perform unauthorized actions.
Reference: The concept of IOAs, including the use of exploits as an example, aligns with cybersecurity best practices and the objectives of the Certified Network Defender (CND) program. The information provided is based on standard cybersecurity frameworks and the CND’s focus on understanding and identifying potential threats before they manifest into actual attacks123.
D
Explanation:
Indicators of Attack (IOAs) are behaviors or actions that suggest an attacker’s intent to compromise a system. Unlike Indicators of Compromise (IOCs), which are evidence that an attack has already occurred, IOAs focus on the detection of attack attempts before they can cause harm. Exploits are a prime example of IOAs because they are tools or techniques used to take advantage of vulnerabilities in systems, often before any actual damage is done. This can include exploiting security holes, system weaknesses, or software bugs to gain unauthorized access or perform unauthorized actions.
Reference: The concept of IOAs, including the use of exploits as an example, aligns with cybersecurity best practices and the objectives of the Certified Network Defender (CND) program. The information provided is based on standard cybersecurity frameworks and the CND’s focus on understanding and identifying potential threats before they manifest into actual attacks123.
Question #42
Identity the method involved in purging technique of data destruction.
- A . Incineration
- B . Overwriting
- C . Degaussing
- D . Wiping
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The purging technique of data destruction is aimed at making data recovery infeasible using logical methods, which directly target the data at the memory level. Overwriting is a prevalent technique for purging, where data is destroyed by being overwritten with unintelligible characters like 0s and 1s. This method ensures that the original data cannot be recovered.
Reference: The explanation is based on the understanding of data destruction methods, where overwriting is identified as a logical method of purging data to prevent its recovery123.
C
Explanation:
The purging technique of data destruction is aimed at making data recovery infeasible using logical methods, which directly target the data at the memory level. Overwriting is a prevalent technique for purging, where data is destroyed by being overwritten with unintelligible characters like 0s and 1s. This method ensures that the original data cannot be recovered.
Reference: The explanation is based on the understanding of data destruction methods, where overwriting is identified as a logical method of purging data to prevent its recovery123.
Question #43
Which of the following helps prevent executing untrusted or untested programs or code from untrusted or unverified third-parties?
- A . Application sandboxing
- B . Deployment of WAFS
- C . Application whitelisting
- D . Application blacklisting
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Application sandboxing is a security mechanism that helps prevent the execution of untrusted or untested programs or code from untrusted or unverified third-parties. It does this by running such programs in a restricted environment, known as a sandbox, where they have limited access to files and system resources. This containment ensures that any malicious code or behavior is isolated from the host system, thereby protecting it from potential harm. Sandboxing is a proactive security measure that can significantly reduce the attack surface and mitigate the risk of security breaches.
Reference: The concept of application sandboxing is covered in the Certified Network Defender (CND) course, which discusses various strategies for protecting networks and systems, including the use of sandboxing to contain and control the execution of potentially harmful code12.
A
Explanation:
Application sandboxing is a security mechanism that helps prevent the execution of untrusted or untested programs or code from untrusted or unverified third-parties. It does this by running such programs in a restricted environment, known as a sandbox, where they have limited access to files and system resources. This containment ensures that any malicious code or behavior is isolated from the host system, thereby protecting it from potential harm. Sandboxing is a proactive security measure that can significantly reduce the attack surface and mitigate the risk of security breaches.
Reference: The concept of application sandboxing is covered in the Certified Network Defender (CND) course, which discusses various strategies for protecting networks and systems, including the use of sandboxing to contain and control the execution of potentially harmful code12.
Question #44
Frank installed Wireshark at all ingress points in the network. Looking at the logs he notices an odd packet source. The odd source has an address of 1080:0:FF:0:8:800:200C:4171 and is using port 21.
What does this source address signify?
- A . This address means that the source is using an IPv6 address and is spoofed and signifies an IPv4 address of 127.0.0.1.
- B . This source address is IPv6 and translates as 13.1.68.3
- C . This source address signifies that the originator is using 802dot1x to try and penetrate into Frank’s network
- D . This means that the source is using IPv4
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The address 1080:0:FF:0:8:800:200C:4171 is an IPv6 address. IPv6 addresses are 128-bit identifiers for interfaces and sets of interfaces. In this case, the address includes a block ::FFFF: (or 0:FF), which is a reserved subnet prefix to facilitate IPv4 to IPv6 migration. This is known as an IPv4-mapped IPv6 address. It is used to represent an IPv4 address in an IPv6 address format. The last 32 bits of the address represent an IPv4 address, which in this case corresponds to 127.0.0.1 – the loopback address in IPv4 used to establish an IP connection to the same machine or computer being used by the end-user.
Reference: The explanation is based on standard IPv6 addressing rules and the specific structure of IPv4-mapped IPv6 addresses. The information is consistent with the ECCouncil’s Network Defender (CND) course objectives regarding understanding and analyzing network protocols and addressing12.
A
Explanation:
The address 1080:0:FF:0:8:800:200C:4171 is an IPv6 address. IPv6 addresses are 128-bit identifiers for interfaces and sets of interfaces. In this case, the address includes a block ::FFFF: (or 0:FF), which is a reserved subnet prefix to facilitate IPv4 to IPv6 migration. This is known as an IPv4-mapped IPv6 address. It is used to represent an IPv4 address in an IPv6 address format. The last 32 bits of the address represent an IPv4 address, which in this case corresponds to 127.0.0.1 – the loopback address in IPv4 used to establish an IP connection to the same machine or computer being used by the end-user.
Reference: The explanation is based on standard IPv6 addressing rules and the specific structure of IPv4-mapped IPv6 addresses. The information is consistent with the ECCouncil’s Network Defender (CND) course objectives regarding understanding and analyzing network protocols and addressing12.
Question #45
Which firewall technology can be implemented in all (application, session, transport, network, and presentation) layers of the OSl model?
- A . Circuit-level gateway
- B . Network address translation
- C . VPN
- D . Packet filtering
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A circuit-level gateway is a type of firewall technology that can be implemented across all layers of the OSI model, including the application, session, transport, network, and presentation layers. This type of firewall monitors TCP handshaking and session fulfillment between packets to ensure that the session is legitimate. Circuit-level gateways are effective because they do not inspect the packet itself, but rather the transmission attributes to ensure a trusted session is established.
Reference: This information is based on the firewall technologies’ capabilities as they relate to the OSI model layers, which is a part of the Certified Network Defender (CND) course material provided by EC-Council1.
C
Explanation:
A circuit-level gateway is a type of firewall technology that can be implemented across all layers of the OSI model, including the application, session, transport, network, and presentation layers. This type of firewall monitors TCP handshaking and session fulfillment between packets to ensure that the session is legitimate. Circuit-level gateways are effective because they do not inspect the packet itself, but rather the transmission attributes to ensure a trusted session is established.
Reference: This information is based on the firewall technologies’ capabilities as they relate to the OSI model layers, which is a part of the Certified Network Defender (CND) course material provided by EC-Council1.
Question #46
James is working as a Network Administrator in a reputed company situated in California. He is monitoring his network traffic with the help of Wireshark. He wants to check and analyze the traffic against a PING sweep attack.
Which of the following Wireshark filters will he use?
- A . lcmp.type==0 and icmp.type==16
- B . lcmp.type==8 or icmp.type==16
- C . lcmp.type==8 and icmp.type==0
- D . lcmp.type==8 or icmp.type==0
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
James should use the Wireshark filter icmp.type==8 or icmp.type==0 to detect a PING sweep attack. This filter will capture both ICMP echo requests and echo replies, which are used in PING sweeps to discover active hosts on a network. When conducting a PING sweep, an attacker sends ICMP echo requests (type 8) to multiple hosts and listens for echo replies (type 0). By monitoring for both types, James can effectively identify a PING sweep attack.
Reference: The use of this filter for detecting PING sweeps is documented in various network security resources, including the InfosecMatter guide on detecting network attacks with Wireshark1, which specifically lists icmp.type==8 or icmp.type==0 as the filter for ICMP ping sweeps. This approach is consistent with standard practices for network monitoring and intrusion detection.
D
Explanation:
James should use the Wireshark filter icmp.type==8 or icmp.type==0 to detect a PING sweep attack. This filter will capture both ICMP echo requests and echo replies, which are used in PING sweeps to discover active hosts on a network. When conducting a PING sweep, an attacker sends ICMP echo requests (type 8) to multiple hosts and listens for echo replies (type 0). By monitoring for both types, James can effectively identify a PING sweep attack.
Reference: The use of this filter for detecting PING sweeps is documented in various network security resources, including the InfosecMatter guide on detecting network attacks with Wireshark1, which specifically lists icmp.type==8 or icmp.type==0 as the filter for ICMP ping sweeps. This approach is consistent with standard practices for network monitoring and intrusion detection.
Question #47
The bank where you work has 600 windows computers and 400 Red Hat computers which primarily serve as bank teller consoles. You have created a plan and deployed all the patches to the Windows computers and you are now working on updating the Red Hat computers.
What command should you run on the network to update the Red Hat computers, download the security package, force the package installation, and update all currently installed packages?
- A . You should run the up2date -d -f -u command
- B . You should run the up2data -u command
- C . You should run the WSUS -d -f -u command.
- D . You should type the sysupdate -d command
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The up2date command was used in older versions of Red Hat Enterprise Linux to update installed packages to their latest available versions. The -d option downloads the packages without installing them, -f forces the installation of the package even if it is already installed, and -u updates all installed packages to the latest versions. However, it’s important to note that up2date has been replaced by yum and more recently by dnf in the newer versions of Red Hat Enterprise Linux. For the scenario described, where security is a concern and the systems are likely to be running a more current version of Red Hat, the correct command would be yum update or dnf upgrade.
Reference: The information is based on the standard practices for updating Red Hat systems as per the Red Hat Customer Portal and the ECCouncil’s Certified Network Defender course objectives. Specifically, the use of up2date is referenced from historical Red Hat documentation, while the replacement with yum and dnf is documented in more recent Red Hat Enterprise Linux system management guides1234.
A
Explanation:
The up2date command was used in older versions of Red Hat Enterprise Linux to update installed packages to their latest available versions. The -d option downloads the packages without installing them, -f forces the installation of the package even if it is already installed, and -u updates all installed packages to the latest versions. However, it’s important to note that up2date has been replaced by yum and more recently by dnf in the newer versions of Red Hat Enterprise Linux. For the scenario described, where security is a concern and the systems are likely to be running a more current version of Red Hat, the correct command would be yum update or dnf upgrade.
Reference: The information is based on the standard practices for updating Red Hat systems as per the Red Hat Customer Portal and the ECCouncil’s Certified Network Defender course objectives. Specifically, the use of up2date is referenced from historical Red Hat documentation, while the replacement with yum and dnf is documented in more recent Red Hat Enterprise Linux system management guides1234.
Question #48
Elden is working as a network administrator at an IT company. His organization opted for a virtualization technique in which the guest OS is aware of the virtual environment in which it is running and communicates with the host machines for requesting resources. Identify the virtualization technique implemented by Elden’s organization.
- A . Hybrid virtualization
- B . Hardware-assisted virtualization
- C . Full virtualization
- D . Para virtualization
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Para virtualization is a virtualization technique where the guest operating system is aware of the virtual environment and can communicate directly with the host machine’s hypervisor to request resources. This direct communication allows for a more efficient system, as it does not require the same level of emulation and overhead as full virtualization. In para virtualization, the guest OS is typically modified to interact with a thin layer of software called a hypervisor, which coordinates access to the physical hardware resources. This setup is designed to reduce the performance overhead that typically occurs with full virtualization, where the guest OS must go through a more complex abstraction layer to access resources.
Reference: The information provided is based on standard practices of para virtualization in network security and aligns with the Certified Network Defender (CND) curriculum, which includes understanding various virtualization techniques as part of network infrastructure management12.
D
Explanation:
Para virtualization is a virtualization technique where the guest operating system is aware of the virtual environment and can communicate directly with the host machine’s hypervisor to request resources. This direct communication allows for a more efficient system, as it does not require the same level of emulation and overhead as full virtualization. In para virtualization, the guest OS is typically modified to interact with a thin layer of software called a hypervisor, which coordinates access to the physical hardware resources. This setup is designed to reduce the performance overhead that typically occurs with full virtualization, where the guest OS must go through a more complex abstraction layer to access resources.
Reference: The information provided is based on standard practices of para virtualization in network security and aligns with the Certified Network Defender (CND) curriculum, which includes understanding various virtualization techniques as part of network infrastructure management12.
Question #49
Identify the correct statements regarding a DMZ zone:
- A . It is a file integrity monitoring mechanism
- B . It is a Neutral zone between a trusted network and an untrusted network
- C . It serves as a proxy
- D . It includes sensitive internal servers such as database servers
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A DMZ, or demilitarized zone, is a physical or logical subnetwork that contains and exposes an organization’s external-facing services to an untrusted network, usually the internet. The purpose of a DMZ is to add an additional layer of security to an organization’s local area network (LAN): an external attacker only has direct access to equipment in the DMZ, rather than any other part of the network. The term ‘neutral zone’ refers to the fact that the DMZ is separated from both the internal network and the untrusted network, which helps prevent attackers from directly accessing internal servers and data. It is not a file integrity monitoring mechanism, does not serve as a proxy, and typically does not include sensitive internal servers like database servers, which are kept inside the trusted network for security reasons123.
Reference: Fortinet’s explanation of a DMZ network1.
EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) course outline2.
An article on strengthening network security with DMZ3.
B
Explanation:
A DMZ, or demilitarized zone, is a physical or logical subnetwork that contains and exposes an organization’s external-facing services to an untrusted network, usually the internet. The purpose of a DMZ is to add an additional layer of security to an organization’s local area network (LAN): an external attacker only has direct access to equipment in the DMZ, rather than any other part of the network. The term ‘neutral zone’ refers to the fact that the DMZ is separated from both the internal network and the untrusted network, which helps prevent attackers from directly accessing internal servers and data. It is not a file integrity monitoring mechanism, does not serve as a proxy, and typically does not include sensitive internal servers like database servers, which are kept inside the trusted network for security reasons123.
Reference: Fortinet’s explanation of a DMZ network1.
EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) course outline2.
An article on strengthening network security with DMZ3.
Question #50
Which protocol would the network administrator choose for the wireless network design. If he needs to satisfy the minimum requirement of 2.4 GHz, 22 MHz of bandwidth, 2 Mbits/s stream for data rate and use DSSS for modulation.
- A . 802.11a
- B . 802.11g
- C . 802.11b
- D . 802.11n
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The 802.11b protocol is the correct choice for the network administrator to satisfy the specified requirements. This protocol operates in the 2.4 GHz frequency band, uses Direct-Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS) for modulation, and provides a data rate of up to 11 Mbits/s, which is well above the minimum requirement of 2 Mbits/s. The 802.11b standard also uses a channel width of 22 MHz, which matches the given specification. It was designed to be backward compatible with the original 802.11 standard and is widely used due to its range and compatibility with many devices.
Reference: IEEE 802.11b-1999 standard documentation.
Wireless LAN Medium Access Control (MAC) and Physical Layer (PHY) Specifications1.
C
Explanation:
The 802.11b protocol is the correct choice for the network administrator to satisfy the specified requirements. This protocol operates in the 2.4 GHz frequency band, uses Direct-Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS) for modulation, and provides a data rate of up to 11 Mbits/s, which is well above the minimum requirement of 2 Mbits/s. The 802.11b standard also uses a channel width of 22 MHz, which matches the given specification. It was designed to be backward compatible with the original 802.11 standard and is widely used due to its range and compatibility with many devices.
Reference: IEEE 802.11b-1999 standard documentation.
Wireless LAN Medium Access Control (MAC) and Physical Layer (PHY) Specifications1.