Practice Free 312-38 Exam Online Questions
Which type of firewall consists of three interfaces and allows further subdivision of the systems based on specific security objectives of the organization?
- A . Screened subnet
- B . Bastion host
- C . Unscreened subnet
- D . Multi-homed firewall
A
Explanation:
A multi-homed firewall is designed with three or more network interfaces. This type of firewall allows an organization to create multiple subnets, each serving different security objectives. The multi-homed firewall can enforce security policies and control traffic flow between these subnets, effectively segmenting the network based on the organization’s specific needs. This segmentation enhances security by isolating different parts of the network, reducing the risk of widespread network compromise in the event of a security breach.
Reference: The concept of a multi-homed firewall aligns with network security best practices and is consistent with the Certified Network Defender (CND) curriculum, which emphasizes the importance of network segmentation and firewall configuration for organizational security.
James was inspecting ARP packets in his organization’s network traffic with the help of Wireshark. He is checking the volume of traffic containing ARP requests as well as the source IP address from which they are originating.
Which type of attack is James analyzing?
- A . ARP Sweep
- B . ARP misconfiguration
- C . ARP spoofinq
- D . ARP Poisioning
D
Explanation:
James is analyzing an ARP Poisoning attack. This type of attack occurs when an attacker sends falsified ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) messages over a local area network. This results in the linking of an attacker’s MAC address with the IP address of a legitimate computer or server on the network. Once the attacker has inserted their MAC address into the ARP cache of other devices, they can intercept, modify, or stop data in transit, effectively performing a man-in-the-middle or denial of service attack.
Reference: The analysis of ARP packets to identify potential ARP Poisoning is a critical skill for network defenders, as outlined in the EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) course. The course emphasizes understanding and identifying various network threats, including ARP-related attacks, which are fundamental to maintaining network security123.
Jason has set a firewall policy that allows only a specific list of network services and deny everything else. This strategy is known as a____________.
- A . Default allow
- B . Default deny
- C . Default restrict
- D . Default access
B
Explanation:
The strategy Jason has set up is known as a Default Deny policy. This approach to network security is designed to block all access by default, only allowing services that are explicitly permitted. This is a more secure posture compared to the Default Allow policy, which allows all traffic unless it is specifically blocked. The Default Deny strategy aligns with the principle of least privilege, ensuring that only the minimum necessary access is granted, thereby reducing the attack surface and potential for unauthorized access.
Reference: The concept of Default Deny is a fundamental security posture that is widely recognized and implemented in various cybersecurity frameworks and guidelines. It is also a key feature of the Zero Trust security model, which does not inherently trust any user or device inside or outside the network perimeter and requires continuous verification and authorization for any access attempt.
Malone is finishing up his incident handling plan for IT before giving it to his boss for review. He is outlining the incident response methodology and the steps that are involved.
What is the last step he should list?
- A . Containment
- B . Assign eradication
- C . A follow-up
- D . Recovery
C
Explanation:
The last step in the incident response methodology, according to the Network Defender (CND) guidelines, is a follow-up. This step is crucial as it involves reviewing and analyzing the incident to understand what happened, how it was handled, and how similar incidents can be prevented in the future. It includes updating incident response plans, improving security measures, and providing training to prevent future incidents.
Reference: The information aligns with the EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) program, which emphasizes an incident response life cycle that includes preparation, detection and analysis, containment, eradication and recovery, and post-event activity, where the follow-up is a critical component of post-event activity123.
John is working as a network defender at a well-reputed multinational company. He wanted to implement security that can help him identify any future attacks that can be targeted toward his organization and take appropriate security measures and actions beforehand to defend against them.
Which one of the following security defense techniques should be implement?
- A . Reactive security approach
- B . Retrospective security approach
- C . Proactive security approach
- D . Preventive security approach
C
Explanation:
John should implement a Proactive security approach. This approach is part of the adaptive security strategy that is built on a 4-pronged approach ― Protect, Detect, Respond, and Predict1. By being proactive, John can anticipate potential threats and vulnerabilities and take steps to mitigate them before they can be exploited. This is in contrast to reactive or retrospective approaches, which deal with threats after they have occurred. The proactive approach is aligned with the Certified Network Defender (CND) program’s emphasis on preparing network defenders to identify parts of an organization that need to be reviewed and tested for security vulnerabilities, and how to reduce, prevent, and mitigate risks in the network2345.
Reference: EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) course outline and key features2. Information on the CND certification and its focus on proactive defense strategies3. Description of the adaptive security strategy, including the proactive approach, from the CND program1.
Details on the protect, detect, respond, and predict approach to network security covered in the CND program4.
Additional insights into the CND training and its emphasis on proactive security measures5.
Harry has successfully completed the vulnerability scanning process and found serious vulnerabilities exist in the organization’s network. Identify the vulnerability management phases through which he will proceed to ensure all the detected vulnerabilities are addressed and eradicated. (Select all that apply)
- A . Mitigation
- B . Assessment
- C . Verification
- D . Remediation
A, C, D
Explanation:
After completing the vulnerability scanning process and identifying serious vulnerabilities, Harry will proceed through several phases of vulnerability management to address and eradicate these vulnerabilities.
The phases include:
Mitigation: This phase involves taking steps to reduce the impact of the detected vulnerabilities. Mitigation strategies may include applying patches, adjusting configurations, or implementing compensating controls to lower the risk associated with the vulnerabilities.
Verification: In this phase, Harry will verify that the vulnerabilities have been successfully mitigated or remediated. This typically involves re-scanning the network to ensure that the vulnerabilities are no longer present or that their risk has been sufficiently reduced.
Remediation: This is the phase where Harry will take action to fix the vulnerabilities. Remediation can involve patching software, closing unnecessary ports, changing passwords, or other actions that directly address the identified security issues.
These phases are part of a broader vulnerability management lifecycle, which also includes assessing vulnerabilities and reassessing the network after remediation efforts to ensure continuous protection.
Reference: The explanation provided is based on the standard vulnerability management lifecycle, which includes assessment, prioritization, action (mitigation and remediation), reassessment, and improvement as outlined in cybersecurity resources123.
Martin is a professional hacker. He is performing reconnaissance on an organization to hack a few target systems. As a part of this method, he needs to determine what hosts are available on the network, what services those hosts are offering, what operating systems they are running, what type of
packet filters/firewalls, etc. To obtain such information, Martin decided to use automated tools.
Which of the following tool must be employed by Martin?
- A . Burp Suite
- B . FOCA
- C . Nmap
- D . Zendio
C
Explanation:
Nmap (Network Mapper) is a security scanner used to discover hosts and services on a computer network, thus building a “map” of the network. It is designed to scan large networks rapidly, although it works fine against single hosts. Nmap uses raw IP packets in novel ways to determine what hosts are available on the network, what services (application name and version) those hosts are offering, what operating systems (and OS versions) they are running, what type of packet filters/firewalls are in use, and dozens of other characteristics. It is highly flexible, allowing for a wide range of advanced techniques, such as network inventory, managing service upgrade schedules, and monitoring host or service uptime. Therefore, for the reconnaissance purposes described in the question, Nmap is the appropriate tool for Martin to employ.
Reference: The information about Nmap and its capabilities aligns with the objectives and and write data simultaneously, effectively increasing throughput and speed. Unlike mirroring, which duplicates data across drives, or parity, which provides redundancy, striping solely focuses on performance by distributing data across the RAID system without redundancy.
Reference: The concept of striping is associated with various RAID levels, particularly RAID 0, which is known for its striping technique without redundancy1. This information aligns with the objectives and documents of the Certified Network Defender (CND) course, which covers RAID storage techniques as part of its curriculum.
Simran is a network administrator at a start-up called Revolution. To ensure that neither party in the company can deny getting email notifications or any other communication, she mandates authentication before a connection establishment or message transfer occurs.
What fundamental attribute of network defense is she enforcing?
- A . Integrity
- B . Non-repudiation
- C . Confidentiality
- D . Authentication
B
Explanation:
Non-repudiation is a fundamental attribute of network defense that ensures that neither party can deny the authenticity of their communications. In the context of Simran’s actions as a network administrator, by mandating authentication before any connection establishment or message transfer, she is ensuring that the identity of the communicating parties can be confirmed and that the parties cannot later deny having sent or received the messages. This is crucial for maintaining accountability and trust within the network, as it provides irrefutable proof of the origin and integrity of the communications.
Reference: The concept of non-repudiation is widely recognized in cybersecurity and network defense literature as one of the key attributes that contribute to the security and integrity of digital communications. It is often discussed alongside other core principles such as integrity, availability, authentication, and confidentiality123.
Katie has implemented the RAID level that split data into blocks and evenly write the data to multiple hard drives but does not provide data redundancy. This type of RAID level requires a minimum of________in order to
setup.
- A . Four drives
- B . Three drives
- C . Two drives
- D . Six drives
C
Explanation:
The RAID level that splits data into blocks and evenly writes the data to multiple hard drives without providing data redundancy is known as RAID 0. This RAID level is also referred to as striping. It requires a minimum of two drives to set up. RAID 0 enhances performance by allowing simultaneous read and write operations across the drives, but it does not offer any fault tolerance. If one drive fails, all data in the array is lost because there is no redundancy.
Reference: RAID 0 is defined by its ability to increase performance by striping data across at least two drives. This information is consistent with the standards and descriptions provided in the EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (C|ND) course materials and other authoritative sources on RAID configurations123.
Timothy works as a network administrator in a multinational organization. He decides to implement a dedicated network for sharing storage resources. He uses a_______as it seperates the storage units from the servers and the user network.
- A . SAN
- B . SCSA
- C . NAS
- D . SAS
A
Explanation:
Storage Area Network (SAN), which is a dedicated high-speed network that connects servers to storage devices, allowing for the sharing of storage resources. A SAN is designed to handle large amounts of data and provides a way to centralize storage management, making it an efficient solution for enterprises that require reliable and scalable storage infrastructure. It separates the storage units from the servers and the user network, which aligns with the scenario described for Timothy’s organization.
Reference: The concept of a SAN as a dedicated network for sharing storage resources is well-documented and aligns with industry standards and practices1234.