Practice Free SK0-005 Exam Online Questions
Question #71
A server technician notices several of the servers in a data center are making loud noises. The servers are still working correctly, and no indicator lights show any issues.
Which of the following should the technician do first to ensure the issues are corrected and the servers remain online?
- A . Replace the drives.
- B . Upgrade the firmware.
- C . Establish a remote connection to the server.
- D . Replace the fans.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The loud noises from the servers are most likely caused by failing hard disk drives, which can produce clicking or grinding sounds. Replacing the drives with new ones can prevent data loss and downtime. Replacing the drives can be done without shutting down the server if they are hot-swappable, which means they can be removed and inserted while the server is running.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.0: Storage, Objective 3.1: Given a scenario, install, deploy, configure and update physical storage devices.
D
Explanation:
The loud noises from the servers are most likely caused by failing hard disk drives, which can produce clicking or grinding sounds. Replacing the drives with new ones can prevent data loss and downtime. Replacing the drives can be done without shutting down the server if they are hot-swappable, which means they can be removed and inserted while the server is running.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.0: Storage, Objective 3.1: Given a scenario, install, deploy, configure and update physical storage devices.
Question #72
A technician retailed a new 4TB hard drive in a Windows server.
Which of the following should the technician perform FIRST to provision the new drive?
- A . Configure the drive as a base disk.
- B . Configure the drive as a dynamic disk.
- C . Partition the drive using MBR.
- D . Partition the drive using OPT.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
GPT (GUID Partition Table) is a partitioning scheme that allows creating partitions on large hard drives (more than 2 TB). It supports up to 128 partitions per drive and uses 64-bit addresses to locate them. MBR (Master Boot Record) is an older partitioning scheme that has limitations on the size and number of partitions (up to 4 primary partitions or 3 primary and 1 extended partition per drive). To provision a new 4 TB drive, the technician should partition it using GPT.
Verified Reference: [GPT], [MBR]
D
Explanation:
GPT (GUID Partition Table) is a partitioning scheme that allows creating partitions on large hard drives (more than 2 TB). It supports up to 128 partitions per drive and uses 64-bit addresses to locate them. MBR (Master Boot Record) is an older partitioning scheme that has limitations on the size and number of partitions (up to 4 primary partitions or 3 primary and 1 extended partition per drive). To provision a new 4 TB drive, the technician should partition it using GPT.
Verified Reference: [GPT], [MBR]
Question #73
An administrator is rebooting servers manually after a group of updates were deployed through SCCM. The administrator notices several of the servers did not receive the deployed update.
Which of the following should the administrator review first?
- A . Confirm the server has the current OS updates and security patches installed.
- B . Confirm the server OS has a valid Active Directory account.
- C . Confirm the server does not have the firewall running.
- D . Confirm the server is in the collection scheduled to receive the update.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The first thing the administrator should check is whether the server is in the collection that was scheduled to receive the update through SCCM. A collection is a group of resources, such as computers or users, that can be managed as a single entity by SCCM. If the server is not in the collection, it will not receive the update. The other options are less likely to be the cause of the problem, as they would affect other aspects of the server’s functionality besides receiving updates.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.0: Security, Objective 5.4: Given a scenario, apply patches/updates and validate their installation.
D
Explanation:
The first thing the administrator should check is whether the server is in the collection that was scheduled to receive the update through SCCM. A collection is a group of resources, such as computers or users, that can be managed as a single entity by SCCM. If the server is not in the collection, it will not receive the update. The other options are less likely to be the cause of the problem, as they would affect other aspects of the server’s functionality besides receiving updates.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.0: Security, Objective 5.4: Given a scenario, apply patches/updates and validate their installation.
Question #74
Which of the following backup types only records changes to the data blocks on a virtual machine?
- A . Differential
- B . Snapshot
- C . Incremental
- D . Synthetic full
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
The backup type that only records changes to the data blocks on a virtual machine is snapshot. A snapshot is a point-in-time copy of a virtual machine (VM) that captures the state and data of the VM at a specific moment. A snapshot can be created instantly and with minimal overhead, as it only stores the changes made to the VM after the snapshot was taken. A snapshot can be used to restore the VM to its previous state in case of data loss or corruption.
B
Explanation:
The backup type that only records changes to the data blocks on a virtual machine is snapshot. A snapshot is a point-in-time copy of a virtual machine (VM) that captures the state and data of the VM at a specific moment. A snapshot can be created instantly and with minimal overhead, as it only stores the changes made to the VM after the snapshot was taken. A snapshot can be used to restore the VM to its previous state in case of data loss or corruption.
Question #75
A newly hired systems administrator is concerned about fileshare access at the company. The administrator turns on DLP for the fileshare and lets it propagate for a week.
Which of the following can the administrator perform now?
- A . Manage the fileshare from an RDP session.
- B . Audit the permissions of the fileshare.
- C . Audit the access to the physical fileshare.
- D . Manage the permissions from the fileshare.
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
DLP, or Data Loss Prevention, is a type of security measure that aims to prevent unauthorized access, use, or transfer of sensitive data. DLP can be applied to various types of data, such as email, cloud storage, network traffic, or fileshares1. DLP for fileshares can help monitor and control who can access, modify, or share files on a network share2. By turning on DLP for the fileshare and letting it propagate for a week, the administrator can audit the permissions of the fileshare and see if there are any violations or anomalies in the access patterns. This can help the administrator identify and remediate any potential risks or compliance issues related to the fileshare2. The other options are incorrect because they are not directly related to DLP for fileshares. Managing the fileshare from an RDP session or from the fileshare itself are administrative tasks that do not require DLP. Auditing the access to the physical fileshare is a physical security measure that is not affected by DLP.
B
Explanation:
DLP, or Data Loss Prevention, is a type of security measure that aims to prevent unauthorized access, use, or transfer of sensitive data. DLP can be applied to various types of data, such as email, cloud storage, network traffic, or fileshares1. DLP for fileshares can help monitor and control who can access, modify, or share files on a network share2. By turning on DLP for the fileshare and letting it propagate for a week, the administrator can audit the permissions of the fileshare and see if there are any violations or anomalies in the access patterns. This can help the administrator identify and remediate any potential risks or compliance issues related to the fileshare2. The other options are incorrect because they are not directly related to DLP for fileshares. Managing the fileshare from an RDP session or from the fileshare itself are administrative tasks that do not require DLP. Auditing the access to the physical fileshare is a physical security measure that is not affected by DLP.
Question #76
Which of the following distributes a load across all interfaces?
- A . Link aggregation group
- B . Most recently used algorithm
- C . Active-passive configuration
- D . Failover
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Link Aggregation: Involves combining multiple physical network interfaces into a single logical interface. This creates increased bandwidth, improved fault tolerance, and load balancing, where traffic can be distributed across all links in the group. (CompTIA Server+ Objectives SK0-004: 2.4)
Why other options are incorrect:
Most recently used algorithm: A concept used in memory management, not network traffic distribution.
Active-passive configuration: Used for failover with only one interface active at a time.
Failover: Ensures service continuity if an interface fails but does not inherently distribute load across multiple links.
A
Explanation:
Link Aggregation: Involves combining multiple physical network interfaces into a single logical interface. This creates increased bandwidth, improved fault tolerance, and load balancing, where traffic can be distributed across all links in the group. (CompTIA Server+ Objectives SK0-004: 2.4)
Why other options are incorrect:
Most recently used algorithm: A concept used in memory management, not network traffic distribution.
Active-passive configuration: Used for failover with only one interface active at a time.
Failover: Ensures service continuity if an interface fails but does not inherently distribute load across multiple links.
Question #77
An administrator has deployed a new virtual server from a template. After confirming access to the subnet’s gateway, the administrator is unable to log on with the domain credentials.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?
- A . The server has not been joined to the domain.
- B . An IP address has not been assigned to the server.
- C . The server requires a reboot to complete the deployment process.
- D . The domain credentials are invalid.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The most likely cause of the issue is that the server has not been joined to the domain. A domain is a logical group of computers and devices that share a common directory service and security policy. A domain controller is a server that manages the domain and authenticates users and computers that want to access domain resources. To log on with domain credentials, a server must be joined to the domain and registered in the directory service. If a server has not been joined to the domain, it will not be recognized or authorized by the domain controller.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4, Lesson 4.3, Objective 4.3
A
Explanation:
The most likely cause of the issue is that the server has not been joined to the domain. A domain is a logical group of computers and devices that share a common directory service and security policy. A domain controller is a server that manages the domain and authenticates users and computers that want to access domain resources. To log on with domain credentials, a server must be joined to the domain and registered in the directory service. If a server has not been joined to the domain, it will not be recognized or authorized by the domain controller.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4, Lesson 4.3, Objective 4.3
Question #78
Hackers recently targeted a company with an attack that resulted in a system breach, which compromised the organization’s data. Because of the system breach, the administrator had to bypass normal change management procedures.
Which of the following change management activities was necessary?
- A . Cancelled change request
- B . Change request postponement
- C . Emergency change request
- D . Privilege change request
- E . User permission change request
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
An emergency change request is a type of change request that is initiated in response to an urgent situation, such as a system breach, that requires immediate action to restore normal operations or prevent further damage. An emergency change request may bypass some of the normal change management procedures, such as approval, testing, or documentation, in order to expedite the implementation of the change. However, an emergency change request should still follow the basic steps of change management, such as identification, analysis, planning, execution, and evaluation, and should be reviewed and documented after the change is completed.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ Study Guide, Chapter 11: Change Management, page 443.
C
Explanation:
An emergency change request is a type of change request that is initiated in response to an urgent situation, such as a system breach, that requires immediate action to restore normal operations or prevent further damage. An emergency change request may bypass some of the normal change management procedures, such as approval, testing, or documentation, in order to expedite the implementation of the change. However, an emergency change request should still follow the basic steps of change management, such as identification, analysis, planning, execution, and evaluation, and should be reviewed and documented after the change is completed.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ Study Guide, Chapter 11: Change Management, page 443.
Question #79
A Linux server was recently updated. Now, the server stops during the boot process with a blank screen and an f prompt.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?
- A . The system is booting to a USB flash drive.
- B . The UEFI boot was interrupted by a missing Linux boot file.
- C . The BIOS could not find a bootable hard disk.
- D . The BIOS firmware needs to be upgraded.
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
The most likely cause of this issue is that the UEFI boot was interrupted by a missing Linux boot file. UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) is a standard that defines the interface and functionality of the firmware that initializes the hardware and software components of a system before loading the operating system. UEFI boot is a process that uses UEFI firmware to load and execute a boot loader, which is a program that loads the operating system kernel and other essential files. A Linux boot file is a file that contains information and instructions for the boot loader, such as the location of the kernel, the root file system, and the boot parameters. If a Linux boot file is missing or corrupted, the boot loader cannot find or load the kernel, and the system stops during the boot process with a blank screen and an f prompt.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4, Lesson 4.1, Objective 4.1
B
Explanation:
The most likely cause of this issue is that the UEFI boot was interrupted by a missing Linux boot file. UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) is a standard that defines the interface and functionality of the firmware that initializes the hardware and software components of a system before loading the operating system. UEFI boot is a process that uses UEFI firmware to load and execute a boot loader, which is a program that loads the operating system kernel and other essential files. A Linux boot file is a file that contains information and instructions for the boot loader, such as the location of the kernel, the root file system, and the boot parameters. If a Linux boot file is missing or corrupted, the boot loader cannot find or load the kernel, and the system stops during the boot process with a blank screen and an f prompt.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4, Lesson 4.1, Objective 4.1
Question #80
A systems administrator is setting up a server on a LAN that uses an address space that follows the RFC 1918 standard.
Which of the following IP addresses should the administrator use to be in compliance with the standard?
- A . 11.251.196.241
- B . 171.245.198.241
- C . 172.16.19.241
- D . 193.168.145.241
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The administrator should use 172.16.19.241 as an IP address to be in compliance with RFC 1918 standard. RFC 1918 defines three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for private internets, meaning they are not globally routable on the public Internet and can be used within an enterprise without any risk of conflict or overlap with other networks.
These ranges are:
C
Explanation:
The administrator should use 172.16.19.241 as an IP address to be in compliance with RFC 1918 standard. RFC 1918 defines three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for private internets, meaning they are not globally routable on the public Internet and can be used within an enterprise without any risk of conflict or overlap with other networks.
These ranges are: