Practice Free SK0-005 Exam Online Questions
Question #11
Which of the following licensing models is MOST appropriate tor a data center that has a variable daily equipment count?
- A . Pet site
- B . Per server
- C . Per user
- D . Per core
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A per core licensing model is based on the number of processor cores in a server. This model is suitable for a data center that has a variable daily equipment count, as it allows for scaling up or down the number of cores as needed. A per core licensing model also provides better performance and efficiency than other models.
Verified Reference: [Per Core Licensing and Basic Definitions]
A
Explanation:
A per core licensing model is based on the number of processor cores in a server. This model is suitable for a data center that has a variable daily equipment count, as it allows for scaling up or down the number of cores as needed. A per core licensing model also provides better performance and efficiency than other models.
Verified Reference: [Per Core Licensing and Basic Definitions]
Question #12
A company’s servers are all displaying the wrong time. The server administrator confirms the time source is correct.
Which of the following is MOST likely preventing the servers from obtaining the correct time?
- A . A firewall
- B . An antivirus
- C . AHIDS
- D . User account control
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The most likely cause of the servers displaying the wrong time is A. A firewall. A firewall is a network security device that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can block or allow certain ports, protocols, or applications that are used for network communication.
One of the protocols that is used for time synchronization is the Network Time Protocol (NTP), which requires the use of UDP port 123 for all time synchronization1. If a firewall blocks this port, it can prevent the servers from obtaining the correct time from the time source. Therefore, the server administrator should check the firewall settings and make sure that UDP port 123 is allowed for NTP traffic.
A
Explanation:
The most likely cause of the servers displaying the wrong time is A. A firewall. A firewall is a network security device that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can block or allow certain ports, protocols, or applications that are used for network communication.
One of the protocols that is used for time synchronization is the Network Time Protocol (NTP), which requires the use of UDP port 123 for all time synchronization1. If a firewall blocks this port, it can prevent the servers from obtaining the correct time from the time source. Therefore, the server administrator should check the firewall settings and make sure that UDP port 123 is allowed for NTP traffic.
Question #13
A new company policy requires that any data loss in excess of one hour is unacceptable in the event of a disaster.
Which of the following concepts is being referred to in this policy?
- A . MTTR
- B . RTO
- C . RPO
- D . MTBF
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) refers to the maximum tolerable period in which data might be lost from an IT service due to a major incident. The policy mentioned in the question highlights that data loss exceeding one hour is unacceptable, directly relating to the RPO concept. RPO is critical in disaster recovery and business continuity planning, indicating the age of the files that must be recovered from backup storage for normal operations to resume without significant losses. MTTR (Mean Time To Repair), RTO (Recovery Time Objective), and MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures) are related concepts but do not specifically address the amount of data loss that can be tolerated.
C
Explanation:
The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) refers to the maximum tolerable period in which data might be lost from an IT service due to a major incident. The policy mentioned in the question highlights that data loss exceeding one hour is unacceptable, directly relating to the RPO concept. RPO is critical in disaster recovery and business continuity planning, indicating the age of the files that must be recovered from backup storage for normal operations to resume without significant losses. MTTR (Mean Time To Repair), RTO (Recovery Time Objective), and MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures) are related concepts but do not specifically address the amount of data loss that can be tolerated.
Question #14
Which of the following testing exercises for disaster recovery is primarily used to discuss incident response strategies for critical systems without affecting production data?
- A . Tabletcp
- B . Backup recovery test
- C . Lrverail over
- D . Hot-site visit audit
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A tabletop exercise is a type of disaster recovery testing exercise that is primarily used to discuss incident response strategies for critical systems without affecting production data. A tabletop exercise is a discussion-based session where team members meet in an informal, classroom setting to review their roles and responsibilities during an emergency and their responses to a hypothetical scenario. A facilitator guides the participants through the discussion and evaluates the strengths and weaknesses of the preparedness program. A tabletop exercise does not involve any actual deployment of resources or activation of systems12. A backup recovery test (B) is a type of disaster recovery testing exercise that involves restoring data from backup media to verify its integrity and availability. A backup recovery test may affect production data if it is not performed on a separate environment. A live failover © is a type of disaster recovery testing exercise that involves switching operations from a primary site to a secondary site in case of a failure or disruption. A live failover may affect production data if it is not performed on a simulated environment. A hot-site visit audit (D) is a type of disaster recovery testing exercise that involves inspecting and evaluating a hot site, which is a backup location that has fully operational equipment and resources to resume business operations in case of a disaster. A hot-site visit audit does not involve any discussion of incident response strategies or simulation of scenarios.
Reference:
1 https://www.ready.gov/testing-exercises
2 https://www.ready.gov/exercises
A
Explanation:
A tabletop exercise is a type of disaster recovery testing exercise that is primarily used to discuss incident response strategies for critical systems without affecting production data. A tabletop exercise is a discussion-based session where team members meet in an informal, classroom setting to review their roles and responsibilities during an emergency and their responses to a hypothetical scenario. A facilitator guides the participants through the discussion and evaluates the strengths and weaknesses of the preparedness program. A tabletop exercise does not involve any actual deployment of resources or activation of systems12. A backup recovery test (B) is a type of disaster recovery testing exercise that involves restoring data from backup media to verify its integrity and availability. A backup recovery test may affect production data if it is not performed on a separate environment. A live failover © is a type of disaster recovery testing exercise that involves switching operations from a primary site to a secondary site in case of a failure or disruption. A live failover may affect production data if it is not performed on a simulated environment. A hot-site visit audit (D) is a type of disaster recovery testing exercise that involves inspecting and evaluating a hot site, which is a backup location that has fully operational equipment and resources to resume business operations in case of a disaster. A hot-site visit audit does not involve any discussion of incident response strategies or simulation of scenarios.
Reference:
1 https://www.ready.gov/testing-exercises
2 https://www.ready.gov/exercises
Question #15
A technician is sizing a new server and, for service reasons, needs as many hot-swappable components as possible.
Which of the following server components can most commonly be replaced without downtime? (Select three).
- A . Drives
- B . Fans
- C . CMOSIC
- D . Processor
- E . Power supplies
- F . Motherboard
- G . Memory
- H . BIOS
Correct Answer: ABE
ABE
Explanation:
Drives, fans, and power supplies are server components that can most commonly be replaced without downtime if they are hot-swappable. Hot-swappable components can be removed and inserted while the server is running, without affecting its operation or performance. Drives store data and applications, fans cool down the server components, and power supplies provide electricity to the server. Replacing these components can prevent data loss, overheating, or power failure.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0: Hardware, Objective 2.2: Given a scenario, install, configure and maintain server components.
ABE
Explanation:
Drives, fans, and power supplies are server components that can most commonly be replaced without downtime if they are hot-swappable. Hot-swappable components can be removed and inserted while the server is running, without affecting its operation or performance. Drives store data and applications, fans cool down the server components, and power supplies provide electricity to the server. Replacing these components can prevent data loss, overheating, or power failure.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0: Hardware, Objective 2.2: Given a scenario, install, configure and maintain server components.
Question #15
A technician is sizing a new server and, for service reasons, needs as many hot-swappable components as possible.
Which of the following server components can most commonly be replaced without downtime? (Select three).
- A . Drives
- B . Fans
- C . CMOSIC
- D . Processor
- E . Power supplies
- F . Motherboard
- G . Memory
- H . BIOS
Correct Answer: ABE
ABE
Explanation:
Drives, fans, and power supplies are server components that can most commonly be replaced without downtime if they are hot-swappable. Hot-swappable components can be removed and inserted while the server is running, without affecting its operation or performance. Drives store data and applications, fans cool down the server components, and power supplies provide electricity to the server. Replacing these components can prevent data loss, overheating, or power failure.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0: Hardware, Objective 2.2: Given a scenario, install, configure and maintain server components.
ABE
Explanation:
Drives, fans, and power supplies are server components that can most commonly be replaced without downtime if they are hot-swappable. Hot-swappable components can be removed and inserted while the server is running, without affecting its operation or performance. Drives store data and applications, fans cool down the server components, and power supplies provide electricity to the server. Replacing these components can prevent data loss, overheating, or power failure.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0: Hardware, Objective 2.2: Given a scenario, install, configure and maintain server components.
Question #17
Which of the following backup methods can be performed while a server is running, will not interrupt files in use, and can be used to fully restore the server if needed?
- A . Snapshot
- B . Archive
- C . Open file
- D . Differential
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A snapshot is a point-in-time image of a system’s state that can be created while the system is running, without interrupting operations. Snapshots can be used to restore the entire system to the exact state at the time of the snapshot. They are commonly used in virtualized environments and allow administrators to roll back to a previous state if needed.
Snapshot (Answer A): Captures the entire system’s state and can be taken without downtime. Archive (Option B): Refers to long-term storage, not necessarily something that supports live backups.
Open file (Option C): Refers to a method that handles open files during backup but doesn’t provide full system restoration capabilities.
Differential (Option D): Backs up only the data changed since the last full backup but still requires a
full backup for complete system restoration.
CompTIA Server+
Reference: This topic is related to SK0-005 Objective 4.1: Explain backup and recovery methods.
A
Explanation:
A snapshot is a point-in-time image of a system’s state that can be created while the system is running, without interrupting operations. Snapshots can be used to restore the entire system to the exact state at the time of the snapshot. They are commonly used in virtualized environments and allow administrators to roll back to a previous state if needed.
Snapshot (Answer A): Captures the entire system’s state and can be taken without downtime. Archive (Option B): Refers to long-term storage, not necessarily something that supports live backups.
Open file (Option C): Refers to a method that handles open files during backup but doesn’t provide full system restoration capabilities.
Differential (Option D): Backs up only the data changed since the last full backup but still requires a
full backup for complete system restoration.
CompTIA Server+
Reference: This topic is related to SK0-005 Objective 4.1: Explain backup and recovery methods.
Question #18
Which of the following licensing models was created by software companies in response to the increasing density of processors?
- A . Per-instance
- B . Per-server
- C . per-user
- D . per-core
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. per-core.
The per-core licensing model was created by software companies in response to the increasing density of processors. This model is used for software that runs on servers with multi-core processors, and the licensing fee is based on the number of cores. This way, the software vendors can charge more for software that runs on servers with more processing power1
D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. per-core.
The per-core licensing model was created by software companies in response to the increasing density of processors. This model is used for software that runs on servers with multi-core processors, and the licensing fee is based on the number of cores. This way, the software vendors can charge more for software that runs on servers with more processing power1
Question #19
A new 40GB NIC has just been installed in a server but is not detected within the Windows server OS.
Which of the following would most likely fix the issue?
- A . Update the firmware on the NIC.
- B . Update the server OS.
- C . Update the remote management console.
- D . Update the switch firmware.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Updating the firmware on the NIC is the most likely solution to fix the issue of a new 40GB NIC not being detected within the Windows server OS. Firmware is a software program that controls the functionality of a hardware device, such as a NIC (network interface card). A NIC is a device that enables network communication for a server by providing an interface between the server and the network cable or wireless connection. Updating the firmware on the NIC can improve its performance, compatibility, and stability with the server OS and network protocols.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 4.0: Networking,
Objective 4.1: Given a scenario, configure network settings for servers.
A
Explanation:
Updating the firmware on the NIC is the most likely solution to fix the issue of a new 40GB NIC not being detected within the Windows server OS. Firmware is a software program that controls the functionality of a hardware device, such as a NIC (network interface card). A NIC is a device that enables network communication for a server by providing an interface between the server and the network cable or wireless connection. Updating the firmware on the NIC can improve its performance, compatibility, and stability with the server OS and network protocols.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 4.0: Networking,
Objective 4.1: Given a scenario, configure network settings for servers.
Question #20
A Linux administrator created a script that will run at startup.
After successfully writing the script, the administrator received me following output when trying to execute the script: Bash ./startup,sh:Permission denied
Which of the following commands would BEST resolve the error message?
- A . Chmod +w startup.sh
- B . Chmod 444 startup.sh
- C . Chmod+x startup.sh
- D . Chmod 466 startUp,sh
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
This is the command that would best resolve the error message “Bash ./startup.sh: Permission denied” when trying to execute a script on Linux. Chmod is a command that changes the permissions of files or directories on Linux. +x is an option that adds the execute permission to the file or directory for the owner, group, and others. startup.sh is the name of the script file that needs to be executed. By running chmod +x startup.sh, the technician grants execute permission to the script file and allows it to be run by any user. Chmod +w startup.sh would add write permission to the file, but not execute permission. Chmod 444 startup.sh would set read-only permission for all users, but not execute permission. Chmod 466 startup.sh would set read and write permission for the owner and write-only permission for group and others, but not execute permission.
Reference: https://www.howtogeek.com/437958/how-to-use-the-chmod-command-on-linux
C
Explanation:
This is the command that would best resolve the error message “Bash ./startup.sh: Permission denied” when trying to execute a script on Linux. Chmod is a command that changes the permissions of files or directories on Linux. +x is an option that adds the execute permission to the file or directory for the owner, group, and others. startup.sh is the name of the script file that needs to be executed. By running chmod +x startup.sh, the technician grants execute permission to the script file and allows it to be run by any user. Chmod +w startup.sh would add write permission to the file, but not execute permission. Chmod 444 startup.sh would set read-only permission for all users, but not execute permission. Chmod 466 startup.sh would set read and write permission for the owner and write-only permission for group and others, but not execute permission.
Reference: https://www.howtogeek.com/437958/how-to-use-the-chmod-command-on-linux