Practice Free S2000-023 Exam Online Questions
A security architect is investigating a compliance gap in a hybrid deployment. The on-premises banking application is failing to report its security posture to the central compliance dashboard, creating a visibility silo.
Review the following architecture snippet:
Environment: Hybrid (On-prem + IBM Cloud)
Component: Red Hat OpenShift Cluster (On-prem)
Connection: IBM Cloud Satellite Link
Issue: Compliance findings are not visible in IBM Cloud SCC.
To resolve this visibility gap and ensure the hybrid environment is treated as a single regulated entity, what is the correct architectural approach?
- A . Manually export logs from the on-prem OpenShift cluster and email them to the compliance officer weekly.
- B . Configure the IBM Cloud Security and Compliance Center (SCC) to extend its scope to the Satellite location and attach the relevant FS Cloud profile.
- C . Replace the on-premises OpenShift cluster with bare metal servers to simplify the reporting agent installation.
- D . Disable compliance monitoring for on-premises resources since they are outside the IBM Cloud physical data centers.
Which IBM Cloud service acts as the central integration point for the "Assess" phase, capable of aggregating compliance data not just from IBM Cloud resources, but also from on-premises environments and other clouds?
- A . IBM Cloud Hyper Protect Crypto Services
- B . IBM Cloud Security and Compliance Center (SCC)
- C . IBM Cloud Internet Services
- D . IBM Cloud Transit Gateway
In the context of the IBM Cloud for Financial Services ecosystem, which two primary groups represent the target clients for the cloud service provider?
- A . Financial Institutions (Banks/Insurers) and Independent Software Vendors (ISVs/SaaS Providers).
- B . Cryptocurrency miners and high-performance computing research labs.
- C . Government regulatory bodies and compliance auditing firms.
- D . Retail banking customers and individual stock traders.
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) at a large insurance company (Consumer) is hesitant to adopt public cloud due to the burden of assessing hundreds of third-party vendors.
How does the IBM Cloud for Financial Services ecosystem directly alleviate this specific "Consumer" pain point?
- A . By creating a dedicated private cloud for each vendor.
- B . By providing the CISO with root access to the vendors’ source code.
- C . By standardizing the compliance posture of "Providers" (ISVs) through the Validation program, allowing the CISO to rely on a common control framework rather than conducting unique audits for every vendor.
- D . By banning all third-party vendors from the platform.
Which of the following statements accurately differentiates the regulatory focus of the "Insurance" segment versus the "Banking" segment?
- A . Insurance focuses on payment processing speed, whereas Banking focuses on claims.
- B . Both segments have identical business models and regulatory requirements.
- C . Banking is unregulated, whereas Insurance is strict.
- D . Banking focuses heavily on Liquidity Risk (Basel III) and real-time transaction monitoring, whereas Insurance focuses heavily on Solvency Risk (Solvency II) and long-term data retention/actuarial modeling.
A cloud architect is configuring the Security and Compliance Center (SCC) for a new regulated workload. The workload must strictly adhere to the controls defined by the IBM Cloud for Financial Services.
Which specific Profile must be selected and attached to the scope to ensure the correct set of validations is applied?
- A . CIS IBM Cloud Foundations Benchmark
- B . GDPR Standard Profile
- C . IBM Cloud Framework for Financial Services
- D . SOC 2 Type II
A bank’s procurement team is reviewing two competing SaaS vendors. Vendor A is "Financial Services Validated." Vendor B is not.
What specific risk reduction benefit does Vendor A offer to the bank’s procurement process?
- A . Vendor A guarantees their stock price will increase.
- B . Vendor A has already demonstrated adherence to a common, rigorous control framework (NIST-based), significantly reducing the "discovery" effort required by the bank’s Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM) team to verify the vendor’s security posture.
- C . Vendor A allows the bank to skip the contract negotiation phase.
- D . Vendor A provides free consulting services.
A financial institution wants to enforce a "Guardrail" across their entire Enterprise hierarchy to prevent any child account from provisioning resources in non-compliant regions (e.g., preventing creation of resources in "au-syd").
Which feature of the Enterprise Account structure enables this top-down governance?
- A . Billing Alerts: Setting a budget of $0 for the "au-syd" region.
- B . Context-Based Restrictions (CBR) or IAM Private Catalog restrictions defined at the Enterprise level and inherited by or enforced upon child accounts.
- C . Email Policy: Sending a memo to all developers forbidding Australian deployments.
- D . Enterprise-level IAM Templates: Manually copying a "Deny" policy to every user.
A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue where traffic to a specific virtual server is being blocked. They need to verify if the packets are reaching the network interface or being dropped by a security group rule.
Which tool is best suited for this specific network-level investigation?
- A . IBM Cloud Flow Logs
- B . IBM Cloud Secrets Manager
- C . IBM Cloud App Configuration
- D . IBM Cloud Activity Tracker
Which of the following capabilities of the IBM Security and Compliance Center (SCC) directly address the specific regulatory requirements of the financial sector? (Select all that apply.)
- A . Continuous Monitoring: Scans are performed periodically (e.g., daily) to ensure ongoing adherence rather than just at audit time.
- B . Hardware Manufacturing: It builds the servers used in the data center.
- C . Profile Customization: Banks can extend the base FS Cloud profile with their own custom rules to meet specific internal governance policies.
- D . Evidence Locker: It automatically generates a secure, immutable history of scan results to provide to auditors.
- E . Automatic Code Writing: It writes the application code to be secure.