Practice Free PK0-005 Exam Online Questions
Question #41
Which of the following should a project manager consult when deciding how to send updates regarding deliverables?
- A . Dashboard
- B . Status report
- C . Meeting minutes
- D . Communication plan
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The PM should consult the communication plan because it defines who receives updates, what information they need, when/how often they should receive it, and which channel/form should be used (email, meeting, dashboard, report, chat, etc.). Project+ emphasizes tailoring communications to stakeholder needs and using a planned approach to avoid confusion, missed expectations, or inconsistent messaging―especially around deliverables, acceptance, and progress.
A dashboard is a tool that may be used to publish updates, but it doesn’t decide communication rules by itself. A status report is one possible artifact (often produced on a cadence defined in the communication plan), but it’s not the governing document for selecting channels and audiences.
Meeting minutes document what happened in a meeting; they’re useful for traceability, but they’re not the primary guide for how deliverable updates should be distributed going forward.
So, when the question is specifically “how to send updates,” the communication plan is the source of truth: it ensures consistent delivery, reduces noise, and aligns with stakeholder preferences and governance requirements.
D
Explanation:
The PM should consult the communication plan because it defines who receives updates, what information they need, when/how often they should receive it, and which channel/form should be used (email, meeting, dashboard, report, chat, etc.). Project+ emphasizes tailoring communications to stakeholder needs and using a planned approach to avoid confusion, missed expectations, or inconsistent messaging―especially around deliverables, acceptance, and progress.
A dashboard is a tool that may be used to publish updates, but it doesn’t decide communication rules by itself. A status report is one possible artifact (often produced on a cadence defined in the communication plan), but it’s not the governing document for selecting channels and audiences.
Meeting minutes document what happened in a meeting; they’re useful for traceability, but they’re not the primary guide for how deliverable updates should be distributed going forward.
So, when the question is specifically “how to send updates,” the communication plan is the source of truth: it ensures consistent delivery, reduces noise, and aligns with stakeholder preferences and governance requirements.
Question #42
The sales department accidentally has access to all project files, including employee personal information.
Which of the following security concepts is this violating?
- A . Need-to-know
- B . Intellectual property
- C . Multifactor authentication
- D . Facility access
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
This violates the need-to-know principle because employees in the sales department should only
have access to information required to perform their job responsibilities. Granting broad access to project files―especially files containing employee personal information―is an access control failure: permissions are too open and not aligned to role-based necessity. CompTIA Project+ emphasizes compliance and information security considerations that affect projects, including the expectation that sensitive information is protected through appropriate controls and access restrictions.
“Intellectual property” (B) concerns ownership and protection of creations (designs, trademarks, code, patents), not role-based access to personal data. “Multifactor authentication” (C) is an authentication mechanism that strengthens login security, but the scenario is about authorization/permissions (who is allowed to access what) rather than proving identity. “Facility access” (D) relates to physical security of locations, not digital file permissions.
In practice, the PM would coordinate with security/IT to correct access groups, implement least-privilege and role-based access control, and ensure sensitive data (like employee PII) is stored and shared with stricter controls―consistent with Project+ governance expectations around handling sensitive information appropriately.
A
Explanation:
This violates the need-to-know principle because employees in the sales department should only
have access to information required to perform their job responsibilities. Granting broad access to project files―especially files containing employee personal information―is an access control failure: permissions are too open and not aligned to role-based necessity. CompTIA Project+ emphasizes compliance and information security considerations that affect projects, including the expectation that sensitive information is protected through appropriate controls and access restrictions.
“Intellectual property” (B) concerns ownership and protection of creations (designs, trademarks, code, patents), not role-based access to personal data. “Multifactor authentication” (C) is an authentication mechanism that strengthens login security, but the scenario is about authorization/permissions (who is allowed to access what) rather than proving identity. “Facility access” (D) relates to physical security of locations, not digital file permissions.
In practice, the PM would coordinate with security/IT to correct access groups, implement least-privilege and role-based access control, and ensure sensitive data (like employee PII) is stored and shared with stricter controls―consistent with Project+ governance expectations around handling sensitive information appropriately.
Question #43
A project manager reports that the implementation of a new system is on track to be completed under budget and ahead of the schedule. A stakeholder then asks the manager to add mobile device functionality.
Which of the following should the project manager do in response to the request?
- A . Decline because it is not included in the project scope.
- B . Assess the impact of the request and create a change request
- C . Create new functional and non-functional requirements for mobile devices.
- D . Revise the baseline of the project plan by adding the new requirements.
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Assess the impact of the request and create a change request. The project manager should assess the impact of the request and create a change request in response to the stakeholder asking to add mobile device functionality to a project that is on track to be completed under budget and ahead of schedule. A change request is a document that formally proposes and records a modification or addition to some aspect of a project, such as scope, schedule, cost, quality, or resources. A change request can help to communicate and justify the need and rationale for the change and its implications on the project objectives and deliverables. A change request also helps to initiate the change control process, which involves reviewing, approving, implementing, and monitoring the change12
B
Explanation:
Assess the impact of the request and create a change request. The project manager should assess the impact of the request and create a change request in response to the stakeholder asking to add mobile device functionality to a project that is on track to be completed under budget and ahead of schedule. A change request is a document that formally proposes and records a modification or addition to some aspect of a project, such as scope, schedule, cost, quality, or resources. A change request can help to communicate and justify the need and rationale for the change and its implications on the project objectives and deliverables. A change request also helps to initiate the change control process, which involves reviewing, approving, implementing, and monitoring the change12
Question #44
A project sponsor is struggling to provide the latest project status information on a weekly executive call.
Which of the following should be reviewed?
- A . Meeting cadence
- B . Gap analysis
- C . Dashboard
- D . Adoption training
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A dashboard is a visual tool that displays key project metrics and indicators in a single view12. A dashboard can help a project sponsor to provide the latest project status information on a weekly executive call by showing the project progress, budget, schedule, risks, issues, and milestones in a clear and concise way34. A dashboard can also facilitate communication, collaboration, and decision making among project stakeholders56. A dashboard should be reviewed and updated regularly to reflect the current state of the project7.
References = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide8, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives9, Write a Project Status Report in 8 Steps + Template [2023] • Asana6, Project Status Reports: 9 Easy Steps & Examples [+ Template]7, How To Write a Project Status Report (Definition and Steps)8, How to Write a Project Status Report [Template Included] – Toggl9, What Is a Project Status? Definition and Key Terms – Indeed10
C
Explanation:
A dashboard is a visual tool that displays key project metrics and indicators in a single view12. A dashboard can help a project sponsor to provide the latest project status information on a weekly executive call by showing the project progress, budget, schedule, risks, issues, and milestones in a clear and concise way34. A dashboard can also facilitate communication, collaboration, and decision making among project stakeholders56. A dashboard should be reviewed and updated regularly to reflect the current state of the project7.
References = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide8, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives9, Write a Project Status Report in 8 Steps + Template [2023] • Asana6, Project Status Reports: 9 Easy Steps & Examples [+ Template]7, How To Write a Project Status Report (Definition and Steps)8, How to Write a Project Status Report [Template Included] – Toggl9, What Is a Project Status? Definition and Key Terms – Indeed10
Question #45
Which of the following best describes a program in the context of project management?
- A . It is a group of unrelated projects within an organization.
- B . It is used to represent the daily activities of multiple projects.
- C . It is a consolidation of related projects with a common goal.
- D . It provides the definition of a project workload.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A program is a group of related projects managed in a coordinated way to achieve benefits and control that would not be available if the projects were managed separately.
Option C―a consolidation of related projects with a common goal―matches the standard program definition used across project management frameworks and aligns with CompTIA Project+ terminology that distinguishes projects (temporary endeavors producing unique outputs) from programs (coordinated management of multiple related projects).
Option A is incorrect because unrelated projects do not form a program; that is closer to a portfolio (a collection of projects/programs managed to meet strategic objectives, not necessarily related).
Option B describes operational tracking, not a program definition.
Option D sounds like scope decomposition or workload definition, which is not what a program is.
Programs typically have overarching governance, shared resources, interdependent timelines, and integrated risk/benefit management. The focus is on achieving strategic outcomes/benefits across the combined effort, such as rolling out a suite of capabilities or transforming an end-to-end business process via multiple projects.
C
Explanation:
A program is a group of related projects managed in a coordinated way to achieve benefits and control that would not be available if the projects were managed separately.
Option C―a consolidation of related projects with a common goal―matches the standard program definition used across project management frameworks and aligns with CompTIA Project+ terminology that distinguishes projects (temporary endeavors producing unique outputs) from programs (coordinated management of multiple related projects).
Option A is incorrect because unrelated projects do not form a program; that is closer to a portfolio (a collection of projects/programs managed to meet strategic objectives, not necessarily related).
Option B describes operational tracking, not a program definition.
Option D sounds like scope decomposition or workload definition, which is not what a program is.
Programs typically have overarching governance, shared resources, interdependent timelines, and integrated risk/benefit management. The focus is on achieving strategic outcomes/benefits across the combined effort, such as rolling out a suite of capabilities or transforming an end-to-end business process via multiple projects.
Question #46
The project manager must create a project charter.
Which of the following should be included in the charter?
- A . Project schedule
- B . Resource allocation
- C . Risk plan
- D . Stakeholder identification
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The project charter is a high-level authorization document that outlines the purpose, objectives, and identifies key stakeholders. It does not contain detailed schedules, risk management plans, or resource allocation ― those come later in the planning process.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 C Project Initiation & Charter Development
D
Explanation:
The project charter is a high-level authorization document that outlines the purpose, objectives, and identifies key stakeholders. It does not contain detailed schedules, risk management plans, or resource allocation ― those come later in the planning process.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 C Project Initiation & Charter Development
Question #47
A system is scheduled to go live, and the client signed an SLA.
Which of the following elements is part of the agreement?
- A . Resolution time
- B . Issue list
- C . Work breakdown structure
- D . Cost optimization
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Resolution time is a standard component of a Service Level Agreement (SLA), defining the maximum time for addressing issues. SLAs are essential for managing client expectations and service performance, in line with CompTIA Project+ concepts of contract management.
A
Explanation:
Resolution time is a standard component of a Service Level Agreement (SLA), defining the maximum time for addressing issues. SLAs are essential for managing client expectations and service performance, in line with CompTIA Project+ concepts of contract management.
Question #48
A project manager has been scheduling and facilitating project meetings, scribing the minutes, distributing the minutes, and sending agendas prior to upcoming meetings. However, the project manager is frustrated because action items are not being completed.
Which of the following should the project manager do to alleviate these concerns?
- A . Use a software tool during the meeting that can create a transcript of what is discussed.
- B . Have a standing agenda that is vague enough so that it can be used again.
- C . Delegate the roles and responsibilities to improve meeting management.
- D . Reprimand project team members for not completing assigned action items.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
According to 6 Techniques for Running Project Management Meetings, one of the best practices for effective project meetings is to assign meeting roles to stay focused. By delegating the roles and responsibilities of facilitator, timekeeper, scribe, and presenter, the project manager can ensure that the meeting agenda is followed, the action items are recorded, and the outcomes are communicated. This can also increase the engagement and accountability of the project team members, and reduce the frustration of the project manager.
C
Explanation:
According to 6 Techniques for Running Project Management Meetings, one of the best practices for effective project meetings is to assign meeting roles to stay focused. By delegating the roles and responsibilities of facilitator, timekeeper, scribe, and presenter, the project manager can ensure that the meeting agenda is followed, the action items are recorded, and the outcomes are communicated. This can also increase the engagement and accountability of the project team members, and reduce the frustration of the project manager.
Question #49
Which of the following aspects are true of waterfall as compared to agile? (Select two).
- A . Waterfall is composed of smaller teams working together
- B . Waterfall reinforces customer collaboration
- C . In waterfall, solution validation occurs later in the development cycle.
- D . In waterfall, working software is more of a focus than comprehensive documentation.
- E . Waterfall is less tolerant to changes in scope.
- F . Waterfall is made up of sprints
Correct Answer: C,E
Question #50
Which of the following describes three-tier architecture?
- A . Conceptual, design, and implementation stages
- B . Presentation, application, and data processing
- C . Network, software, and security
- D . Development, testing, and production environment
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Presentation, application, and data processing. Presentation, application, and data processing are the three logical and physical computing tiers that make up a three-tier architecture. A three-tier architecture is a type of software architecture that separates an application into three layers or tiers that run on different servers or machines. Each tier performs a specific function or role and communicates with other tiers through well-defined interfaces. The presentation tier is the user interface and communication layer of the application, where the end user interacts with the application. The application tier is the logic or middle tier of the application, where data is processed using business rules. The data processing tier is the data or back-end tier of the application, where data is stored and managed12
B
Explanation:
Presentation, application, and data processing. Presentation, application, and data processing are the three logical and physical computing tiers that make up a three-tier architecture. A three-tier architecture is a type of software architecture that separates an application into three layers or tiers that run on different servers or machines. Each tier performs a specific function or role and communicates with other tiers through well-defined interfaces. The presentation tier is the user interface and communication layer of the application, where the end user interacts with the application. The application tier is the logic or middle tier of the application, where data is processed using business rules. The data processing tier is the data or back-end tier of the application, where data is stored and managed12