Practice Free PK0-005 Exam Online Questions
A project manager is eager to define access requirements during the initiation phase of a project.
Which of the following steps should the project manager perform first?
- A . Define the WBS.
- B . Develop a RAM.
- C . Manage the vendors.
- D . Assess the resource pool.
D
Explanation:
This answer is based on the best practice of defining access requirements in project management, which is to identify the roles, responsibilities, and permissions of the project team members and other stakeholders who need to access the project information, resources, and deliverables12. The first step in this process is to assess the resource pool, which is the availability and capability of the human resources that can be assigned to the project34. By assessing the resource pool, the project manager can determine the skills, experience, and security clearance of the potential project team members, as well as their reporting relationships, communication preferences, and expectations56. This information can help the project manager to define the access requirements for each role and stakeholder group, and to assign the appropriate level of access to the project data, documents, tools, and systems78.
References = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide9, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives10, What is Requirements Management?, How to Write Project Requirements, A Guide to Functional Requirements, Project Requirements Management: A Quick Guide, Creating clear project requirements, How to Define Project Roles and Responsibilities
A project manager provided details regarding the completion of the following tasks:
Vendor selection took less time than planned.
Equipment procurement took less time than estimated.
Equipment installation went according to schedule.
Which of the following should the project manager update?
- A . Change log
- B . Project Gantt
- C . Issue log
- D . Requirements traceability matrix
B
Explanation:
The Project Gantt chart is a scheduling tool used to track task progress and timelines. When tasks are completed ahead of schedule, updating the Gantt chart ensures accurate tracking. This aligns with CompTIA Project+ recommendations on project scheduling and monitoring.
A team found a deficiency in an application and is proposing improvements, but the sponsor requests a business case.
Which of the following best describes the intended objective of the business case?
- A . To identify the potential risk and issues for the project
- B . To determine the timeline and budget of the project
- C . To define the specific tasks required to create the project
- D . To specify what problem is being solved by the project
D
Explanation:
A business case exists to justify why the project should be done―what problem/opportunity it addresses and what benefits/value it provides relative to cost. In CompTIA Project+ objectives, the business case is part of discovery/concept and initiation, linked to business objectives and ROI, and is used to support approval decisions. The first, foundational element of that justification is clearly stating the problem being solved (or the opportunity being captured). ()
Option D best captures that intent: specify what problem is being solved by the project. Once the problem is defined, the business case typically expands to include expected benefits, costs, assumptions, constraints, and high-level risks―but those are supporting elements, not the primary objective.
Option A is more aligned to risk management artifacts (risk register, issue log).
Option B (timeline and budget) is more aligned to the project plan and estimating/scheduling.
Option C (specific tasks) aligns to a WBS or backlog planning. The sponsor is asking for the “why” and justification for investment before committing effort―so the business case objective is to articulate the problem and the value of solving it. ()
Because the project team lacks hands-on experience, the project manager has decided to involve a third-party vendor to complete the development of a product.
Which of the following documents should the project manager expedite first?
- A . RFI
- B . RFP
- C . RFQ
- D . RFB
B
Explanation:
When a project team lacks hands-on experience and decides to involve a third-party vendor for product development, the first document to expedite is a Request for Proposal (RFP). An RFP outlines the project requirements and asks potential vendors to submit proposals detailing how they would meet those requirements and at what cost. This allows the project manager to evaluate the capabilities and offerings of different vendors before making a decision.
References = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide (PK0-005)
During the testing phase of a project, an executive raises a concern about a missing requirement in the product.
Which of the following is the next step the project manager should take?
- A . Communicate the change status.
- B . Ask for a change request submission
- C . Escalate to the change control board
- D . Reject the change to prevent scope creep.
During the stabilization phase for recently deployed software, an end user reports a bug that is compromising data integrity.
Which of the following tools will the project manager MOST likely use?
- A . Issue log
- B . Defect log
- C . Change log
- D . Task board
B
Explanation:
During the stabilization phase of recently deployed software, the project manager will most likely use a defect log to track and manage reported bugs. A defect log is a document that contains information about the defects or issues identified during testing or after the deployment of software. It includes the severity of the defect, the steps to reproduce the problem, and the actions taken to resolve the defect. References: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 4.1.
The project manager will most likely use a defect log during the stabilization phase for recently deployed software to record a bug that is compromising data integrity. A defect log is a tool that tracks and documents any errors or flaws found in a software product or system during testing or operation. It usually includes information such as defect ID, description, severity, priority, status, resolution, and responsible person. A defect log can help to monitor and manage the quality of the software product or system and ensure that all defects are identified and resolved before delivery or release.
As a result of lessons learned, a project manager convenes a meeting to understand the poor quality of the project documentation. During the meeting, project team members provide insights from their perspectives and discussions with group members.
Which of the following is the project team doing?
- A . Executing the approved contingency plan
- B . Constructing an Ishikawa diagram to determine the root cause
- C . Using a Pareto chart to prioritize the different causes
- D . Engaging the senior management team in regard to the issue
B
Explanation:
An Ishikawa diagram, also known as a fishbone diagram, is a tool used to identify and analyze the root causes of a particular problem. CompTIA Project+ references this tool as essential for quality management and problem-solving.
A project manager is assigned to a project that has contracted with vendors.
Which of the following actions should the project manager most frequently take? (Select two).
- A . Update the issue log
- B . Create a project charter
- C . Validate the status report
- D . Monitor performance
- E . Approve deliverables
- F . Baseline the project schedule
C,D
Explanation:
When managing vendor contracts, the PM must validate vendor status reports to confirm progress and monitor vendor performance against agreed service levels. Approving deliverables occurs less frequently, and creating charters/baselining schedules are initiation tasks, not recurring vendor management tasks.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 C Procurement & Vendor Management; CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-004 Governance, Risk & Compliance domain.
Which of the following activities are important parts of the closing phase? (Select two).
- A . Releasing resources
- B . Locking risks
- C . Updating stakeholder register
- D . Closing contracts
- E . Completing the work breakdown structure
- F . Negotiating the next project
A,B
Explanation:
These are two of the key activities in the closing phase, as they involve finalizing the use of resources and resolving any remaining risks that may affect the project performance or quality.
References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide1, Chapter 12: Closing Phase Activities
A project misses a deadline. The project manager creates the following diagram:
Execution: The change control process was not followed. The customer added requests for previously unrequested features. The team developed unnecessary features.
Requirements: The customer did not provide all requirements during the initiation phase.
Which of the following is most likely the root cause of the delay?
- A . Team conflicts
- B . Unvalidated deliverables
- C . Scope creep
- D . Gold plating
C
Explanation:
The diagram shows that the customer added requests for previously unrequested features during execution and the change control process was not followed. That combination most strongly points to scope creep as the root cause of the missed deadline: additional scope entered the workstream without proper evaluation, approval, replanning, and schedule/budget adjustment. CompTIA Project+ emphasizes controlling scope through defined requirements, scope baselines/artifacts, and
a formal change control process; when that process is bypassed, uncontrolled scope growth commonly drives schedule slippage and cost overruns.
Gold plating (building “unnecessary features”) is also present, but in the diagram it appears as a downstream effect of weak requirements discipline and poor change control―teams often overbuild when requirements are incomplete or shifting. The initiating problem highlighted is that the customer did not provide all requirements early, which increases later change requests; when those changes are not properly controlled, the project experiences scope creep and deadline impact.
Team conflicts and unvalidated deliverables are not supported by the causal chain shown. The best root-cause label among the options is scope creep.