Practice Free PK0-005 Exam Online Questions
Question #11
A manufacturing company is experiencing a high number of defects in its products and wants to identify the root cause to improve its processes.
Which of the following should the company use?
- A . Run charts
- B . Fishbone/lshikawa diagrams
- C . Scatter plot
- D . Decision tree
Correct Answer: B
Question #12
A project sponsor is trying to use the ROI to determine if the project should be approved.
Which of the following best describes what the project sponsor needs?
- A . An analysis of the current situation and the desired outcome
- B . A document with the description of project deliverables and vendor’s responsibilities
- C . A description of the value that the project will bring to the company after the investment
- D . An analysis of the costs related to normal operations of the company
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
ROI (return on investment) is a business-case concept used to evaluate whether the benefits/value of a project justify the investment. In CompTIA Project+ (PK0-005) objectives, ROI is explicitly referenced under “Business case or business objective C Return on investment (ROI)” as an artifact used during the discovery/concept and initiation work to support approval decisions.
Option C best matches that need because it focuses on the value the project will bring after the investment (benefits/returns). This value description is what the sponsor compares against the project’s expected costs to judge attractiveness and prioritize investments.
Option A (current vs desired outcome) can help define the problem and target state, but it isn’t ROI itself.
Option B describes procurement documentation such as a statement of work/contract-style responsibilities, which is not the sponsor’s ROI input.
Option D focuses on operational costs (OpEx) in normal operations; while OpEx may be part of the financial picture, ROI is specifically about investment return, not just “normal operations” cost analysis.
C
Explanation:
ROI (return on investment) is a business-case concept used to evaluate whether the benefits/value of a project justify the investment. In CompTIA Project+ (PK0-005) objectives, ROI is explicitly referenced under “Business case or business objective C Return on investment (ROI)” as an artifact used during the discovery/concept and initiation work to support approval decisions.
Option C best matches that need because it focuses on the value the project will bring after the investment (benefits/returns). This value description is what the sponsor compares against the project’s expected costs to judge attractiveness and prioritize investments.
Option A (current vs desired outcome) can help define the problem and target state, but it isn’t ROI itself.
Option B describes procurement documentation such as a statement of work/contract-style responsibilities, which is not the sponsor’s ROI input.
Option D focuses on operational costs (OpEx) in normal operations; while OpEx may be part of the financial picture, ROI is specifically about investment return, not just “normal operations” cost analysis.
Question #13
Given the following velocity chart:
Which of the following updates on the project status should the Scrum master provide to the senior management team?
- A . The project utilized all of its available reserve.
- B . The project has scope creep.
- C . The project deviated from the critical path.
- D . The project is trending ahead of schedule.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A velocity chart is a tool used in agile project management to track the progress and performance of a project team over time. It shows the number of features or user stories completed in each iteration or sprint. The planned timeline line represents the expected or ideal velocity, while the actual effort line shows the actual or achieved velocity. By comparing the two lines, the Scrum master can identify any gaps, trends, or issues in the project delivery.
Based on the image, the most likely update that the Scrum master can provide to the senior management team is D. The project is trending ahead of schedule. This is because the actual effort line is above the planned timeline line for most of the time, indicating that the project team is completing more features than expected in each sprint. This means that the project is ahead of schedule and has a positive velocity variance.
D
Explanation:
A velocity chart is a tool used in agile project management to track the progress and performance of a project team over time. It shows the number of features or user stories completed in each iteration or sprint. The planned timeline line represents the expected or ideal velocity, while the actual effort line shows the actual or achieved velocity. By comparing the two lines, the Scrum master can identify any gaps, trends, or issues in the project delivery.
Based on the image, the most likely update that the Scrum master can provide to the senior management team is D. The project is trending ahead of schedule. This is because the actual effort line is above the planned timeline line for most of the time, indicating that the project team is completing more features than expected in each sprint. This means that the project is ahead of schedule and has a positive velocity variance.
Question #14
A project manager was not part of a contract negotiation. The project manager is concerned that stakeholders will expect the project to achieve deliverables requested in the RFP.
Which of the following documents should the project manager produce FIRST to start communication about the boundaries of the project?
- A . Milestone chart
- B . Work breakdown structure
- C . Project charter
- D . Detailed scope statement
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The project manager should produce a project charter first to start communication about the boundaries of the project. A project charter is a document that formally authorizes a project and defines its high-level scope, objectives, assumptions, constraints, stakeholders, roles and responsibilities, and key deliverables. A project charter can help to communicate the project vision and expectations to all stakeholders and provide a basis for future project decisions23
C
Explanation:
The project manager should produce a project charter first to start communication about the boundaries of the project. A project charter is a document that formally authorizes a project and defines its high-level scope, objectives, assumptions, constraints, stakeholders, roles and responsibilities, and key deliverables. A project charter can help to communicate the project vision and expectations to all stakeholders and provide a basis for future project decisions23
Question #15
A software development team implemented an approved change but does not obtain the expected results. The team notifies the change control board (CCB) about the failed change.
Which of the following control processes is being followed?
- A . Scope creep
- B . Recovery plan
- C . Incident report
- D . Risk response
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Notifying the CCB that an approved change “failed” is consistent with logging and escalating an issue/incident arising from change implementation. In CompTIA Project+ objectives, the change control process includes not only approval and implementation, but also validating the change implementation and communicating change deployment. If validation shows the change did not achieve the expected outcome, that result must be documented and escalated through the same governance path (often the CCB) so the project can decide whether to roll back, revise, or raise a new change request.
CompTIA also separates risk management (responses to potential future events) from issue management (handling problems that have already occurred), including issue tracking, escalation path, ownership, and a resolution plan, and it highlights “connections between issues and changes.” A failed implemented change is an issue now, so an incident report (documenting what happened, impact, and next steps) best matches the control process being followed.
“Scope creep” is unauthorized scope growth, “risk response” is for anticipated risks, and “recovery plan” could be a next action, but the process described is the reporting/documentation and escalation of the incident.
C
Explanation:
Notifying the CCB that an approved change “failed” is consistent with logging and escalating an issue/incident arising from change implementation. In CompTIA Project+ objectives, the change control process includes not only approval and implementation, but also validating the change implementation and communicating change deployment. If validation shows the change did not achieve the expected outcome, that result must be documented and escalated through the same governance path (often the CCB) so the project can decide whether to roll back, revise, or raise a new change request.
CompTIA also separates risk management (responses to potential future events) from issue management (handling problems that have already occurred), including issue tracking, escalation path, ownership, and a resolution plan, and it highlights “connections between issues and changes.” A failed implemented change is an issue now, so an incident report (documenting what happened, impact, and next steps) best matches the control process being followed.
“Scope creep” is unauthorized scope growth, “risk response” is for anticipated risks, and “recovery plan” could be a next action, but the process described is the reporting/documentation and escalation of the incident.
Question #16
The project team determines that software installation can only begin after the desktops have been installed and can be powered on.
Which of the following dependencies does this represent?
- A . External
- B . Internal
- C . Mandatory
- D . Discretionary
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The dependency between software installation and desktop installation is a mandatory dependency. A mandatory dependency is a type of dependency that is inherent in the nature or logic of the work and cannot be avoided or changed. It is also known as a hard dependency or a hard logic dependency. A mandatory dependency means that one task must be completed before another task can start or finish.
For example, software installation can only start after desktop installation is finished5
The dependency between desktop installation and software installation represents a mandatory dependency. A mandatory dependency is a type of task dependency that is inherent in the nature of the work being performed. In this case, software installation cannot begin until desktops are installed and powered on, and therefore, the dependency is mandatory. References: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, Chapter 3: Project Integration Management, Objective 3.1: Identify the project management processes and the interactions between them.
C
Explanation:
The dependency between software installation and desktop installation is a mandatory dependency. A mandatory dependency is a type of dependency that is inherent in the nature or logic of the work and cannot be avoided or changed. It is also known as a hard dependency or a hard logic dependency. A mandatory dependency means that one task must be completed before another task can start or finish.
For example, software installation can only start after desktop installation is finished5
The dependency between desktop installation and software installation represents a mandatory dependency. A mandatory dependency is a type of task dependency that is inherent in the nature of the work being performed. In this case, software installation cannot begin until desktops are installed and powered on, and therefore, the dependency is mandatory. References: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, Chapter 3: Project Integration Management, Objective 3.1: Identify the project management processes and the interactions between them.
Question #17
A project team member wrote a user guide over the past ten days. Given the following scatter diagram.
Which erf the following can be formally conducted?
- A . The team member prioritized other tasks over the completion of this task
- B . The learn member had performance issues over time.
- C . There is a negative correlation with 6me and output
- D . This is a display of units of outstanding work to predict completion
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The scatter diagram shows a clear negative correlation between time (days) and output (pages), meaning as time progresses, the number of pages completed decreases. This is evident from the downward trend of the plotted points on the graph.
References = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3: Project Execution, page 130; CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.0: Project Execution, Objective 3.3: Analyze project performance by using appropriate tools and techniques, Sub-objective 3.3.2: Given a scenario, interpret the results of data analysis using appropriate tools and techniques, Knowledge of: Scatter diagrams.
C
Explanation:
The scatter diagram shows a clear negative correlation between time (days) and output (pages), meaning as time progresses, the number of pages completed decreases. This is evident from the downward trend of the plotted points on the graph.
References = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3: Project Execution, page 130; CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.0: Project Execution, Objective 3.3: Analyze project performance by using appropriate tools and techniques, Sub-objective 3.3.2: Given a scenario, interpret the results of data analysis using appropriate tools and techniques, Knowledge of: Scatter diagrams.
Question #18
A project manager has been informed that the delivery of required IT equipment will be delayed.
Which of the following is the FIRST step the project manager should take?
- A . Make an impact assessment.
- B . Prepare a new purchase order.
- C . Select a new vendor.
- D . Create a risk register.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The project manager should make an impact assessment after being informed that the delivery of required IT equipment will be delayed. An impact assessment is a process of analyzing and evaluating how a change or an issue may affect the scope, schedule, cost, quality, or risks of a project. An impact assessment can help to determine the severity and implications of the delay on the project objectives and deliverables and identify any possible alternatives or corrective actions to minimize or avoid its negative effects.
A
Explanation:
The project manager should make an impact assessment after being informed that the delivery of required IT equipment will be delayed. An impact assessment is a process of analyzing and evaluating how a change or an issue may affect the scope, schedule, cost, quality, or risks of a project. An impact assessment can help to determine the severity and implications of the delay on the project objectives and deliverables and identify any possible alternatives or corrective actions to minimize or avoid its negative effects.
Question #19
Which of the following is a test that is done on an existing system to ensure the previous functionality still works after a change has been made?
- A . Smoke testing
- B . Regression testing
- C . Unit testing
- D . User acceptance testing
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Regression testing is a type of testing that is done on an existing system to ensure that the previous functionality still works after a change has been made. Regression testing is a process of retesting or verifying that a software system or application still performs as expected after it has been modified or updated with new features, bug fixes, patches, etc. Regression testing can help to detect any errors or defects that may have been introduced by the change and ensure that no functionality has been broken or degraded.
B
Explanation:
Regression testing is a type of testing that is done on an existing system to ensure that the previous functionality still works after a change has been made. Regression testing is a process of retesting or verifying that a software system or application still performs as expected after it has been modified or updated with new features, bug fixes, patches, etc. Regression testing can help to detect any errors or defects that may have been introduced by the change and ensure that no functionality has been broken or degraded.
Question #20
A project manager is coordinating multiple teams of six people that will each provide feedback for a new product. The teams are recording their opinions, which may be used to define the final product that is sent to mass production.
Which of the following best describes this technique?
- A . Demonstration
- B . Workshop
- C . Brainstorming
- D . Focus group
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A focus group is a technique that involves gathering a group of people who share some characteristics or interests related to a product, service, or issue, and asking them for their opinions, perceptions, or feedback. The project manager acts as a moderator or facilitator who guides the discussion and records the results. A focus group can help to collect information from a representative sample of the target population, explore ideas, identify needs and preferences, and support the completion of larger projects.
The other options are not correct because:
A demonstration is a technique that involves showing the features or capabilities of a product, service, or process to the stakeholders or customers, usually in a live or simulated environment. A demonstration can help to validate the requirements, obtain feedback, and verify the functionality of a deliverable.
A workshop is a technique that involves bringing together a group of stakeholders or experts to work on a specific topic, problem, or issue, usually in a structured and facilitated way. A workshop can help to define the scope, plan the activities, identify the risks, resolve the conflicts, and generate the solutions of a project.
Brainstorming is a technique that involves generating a large number of ideas or alternatives for a problem or opportunity, usually in a creative and spontaneous way. Brainstorming can help to enhance the creativity, diversity, and quality of the ideas, and encourage the participation and collaboration of the team members.
References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6: Planning Projects, Part 2 (Scope, Quality, and Risk), page 191; CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2: Project Planning, Objective 2.1: Given a scenario, create a project charter and project management plan.
D
Explanation:
A focus group is a technique that involves gathering a group of people who share some characteristics or interests related to a product, service, or issue, and asking them for their opinions, perceptions, or feedback. The project manager acts as a moderator or facilitator who guides the discussion and records the results. A focus group can help to collect information from a representative sample of the target population, explore ideas, identify needs and preferences, and support the completion of larger projects.
The other options are not correct because:
A demonstration is a technique that involves showing the features or capabilities of a product, service, or process to the stakeholders or customers, usually in a live or simulated environment. A demonstration can help to validate the requirements, obtain feedback, and verify the functionality of a deliverable.
A workshop is a technique that involves bringing together a group of stakeholders or experts to work on a specific topic, problem, or issue, usually in a structured and facilitated way. A workshop can help to define the scope, plan the activities, identify the risks, resolve the conflicts, and generate the solutions of a project.
Brainstorming is a technique that involves generating a large number of ideas or alternatives for a problem or opportunity, usually in a creative and spontaneous way. Brainstorming can help to enhance the creativity, diversity, and quality of the ideas, and encourage the participation and collaboration of the team members.
References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6: Planning Projects, Part 2 (Scope, Quality, and Risk), page 191; CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2: Project Planning, Objective 2.1: Given a scenario, create a project charter and project management plan.