Practice Free PK0-005 Exam Online Questions
Which of the following activities are performed during the closing phase? (Select three).
- A . Requesting project charter sign-off
- B . Recognizing project team efforts and rewarding team members
- C . Working with the financial team to obtain return of investment
- D . Revoking resource credentials from the system
- E . Updating the risk register with new findings
- F . Informing the functional manager about the release of resources
- G . Monitoring project team performance
B,D,F
Explanation:
The closing phase of a project involves finalizing all project activities, delivering the project deliverables, releasing the project resources, and closing out the project accounts. Some of the activities that are performed during this phase are12:
•Recognizing project team efforts and rewarding team members. This is an important activity to acknowledge the contributions of the project team, celebrate the project success, and motivate the team members for future projects. Recognition and rewards can be given in various forms, such as certificates, bonuses, gifts, or feedback.
•Revoking resource credentials from the system. This is a security measure to ensure that the project resources, such as staff, contractors, vendors, or consultants, do not have access to the project systems, data, or assets after the project is completed. Revoking credentials can prevent unauthorized access, data breaches, or misuse of project resources.
•Informing the functional manager about the release of resources. This is a communication activity to notify the functional manager, who is responsible for the allocation and management of resources, that the project resources are no longer needed and can be reassigned to other projects or tasks. Informing the functional manager can help to optimize the resource utilization, avoid resource conflicts, and plan for future resource needs.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Certification
When creating a project schedule, a project manager adds activities with zero duration.
Which of the following describes these types of activities?
- A . Critical paths
- B . Resources
- C . Milestones
- D . Work breakdown structures
C
Explanation:
Milestones are activities with zero duration that are added to a project schedule by a project manager. Milestones are significant events or achievements in a project that mark the completion of a phase, deliverable, or task. Milestones can help to track and measure the progress and performance of a project and communicate it to stakeholders.
Which of the following is a test that is done on an existing system to ensure the previous functionality still works after a change has been made?
- A . Smoke testing
- B . Regression testing
- C . Unit testing
- D . User acceptance testing
B
Explanation:
Regression testing is a type of testing that is done on an existing system to ensure that the previous functionality still works after a change has been made. Regression testing is a process of retesting or verifying that a software system or application still performs as expected after it has been modified or updated with new features, bug fixes, patches, etc. Regression testing can help to detect any errors or defects that may have been introduced by the change and ensure that no functionality has been broken or degraded.
A piece of equipment has malfunctioned and is stalling the completion of a deliverable for a project.
Which of the following should the project manager do next?
- A . Buy a replacement for the faulty equipment.
- B . Get the maintenance team to resolve the issue.
- C . Escalate the issue to the project sponsor.
- D . Rate the severity of the impact the issue has on the project.
D
Explanation:
This answer is based on the best practice of issue management in project management, which is to identify, analyze, prioritize, and resolve issues that affect the project performance, scope, schedule, quality, or budget12. The first step in this process is to rate the severity of the impact the issue has on the project, which involves assessing the likelihood and consequences of the issue, and assigning a rating or score to the issue based on a predefined scale or criteria34. By rating the severity of the impact, the project manager can determine the urgency and importance of the issue, and decide the appropriate course of action to address the issue56. Rating the severity of the impact is better than the other options because:
Buying a replacement for the faulty equipment may not be feasible, cost-effective, or timely, depending on the availability, price, and delivery time of the equipment. It may also require approval from the project sponsor or other stakeholders, and may affect the project budget or scope7.
Getting the maintenance team to resolve the issue may not be possible, depending on the nature and extent of the malfunction, the skills and availability of the maintenance team, and the warranty or service contract of the equipment. It may also take time and resources to diagnose and fix the problem, and may cause further delays or disruptions to the project8.
Escalating the issue to the project sponsor may not be necessary, depending on the severity and complexity of the issue, and the authority and responsibility of the project manager. It may also create unnecessary alarm or confusion among the project stakeholders, and may undermine the project manager’s credibility or autonomy9.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, What is Issue Management?1, Issue Management Process2, How to Assess the Severity of Project Issues3, How to Prioritize Project Issues4, How to Replace Faulty Equipment in Project
Management5, How to Manage Equipment Maintenance in Project Management6, How to Escalate Issues in Project Management7
A third party needs to perform a short-term task for which the duration cannot be accurately estimated and the cost cannot be calculated in advance.
Which of the following should the project manager put in place before work begins?
- A . Time and materials contract
- B . Master service agreement
- C . Fixed-price contract
- D . Statement of work
- E . Cost-plus agreement
A
Explanation:
The project manager should put in place a time and materials contract before work begins for a third party that needs to perform a short-term task for which the duration cannot be accurately estimated and the cost cannot be calculated in advance. A time and materials contract is a type of contract where the buyer pays the seller based on the actual time spent and materials used during the project. A time and materials contract is suitable for projects that have uncertain or variable scope, duration, or cost. A time and materials contract can provide flexibility and adaptability for both parties and allow them to adjust to changing requirements or circumstances.
A project manager is in the process of evaluating the probability and impact of a risk by assigning numbers such as a monetary value.
Which of the following is the project manager using?
- A . Monte Carlo simulation
- B . Root cause analysis
- C . Quantitative risk analysis
- D . Risk response analysis
C
Explanation:
Quantitative risk analysis involves numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives. It often includes assigning monetary values to risks to understand their impact in financial terms, helping in prioritizing risks based on their potential cost or impact on the project. This contrasts with qualitative risk analysis, which assesses risks based on their probability and impact but does not assign numerical values.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, specifically the sections covering risk management processes and techniques.
Which of the following best describes why a project manager would decide to sign a fixed-price contract with a vendor?
- A . The scope of the project deliverable is clearly defined.
- B . There is a non-disclosure agreement in place.
- C . There are multiple requirements for the product.
- D . The PM wants to simplify the logistics of the required product.
A
Explanation:
A Fixed-Price Contract is most suitable when the project scope, requirements, and deliverables are clearly and thoroughly defined. This contract type sets a predetermined price for the work, regardless of the actual costs incurred, transferring the risk of cost overruns to the vendor. It is advantageous when the project details are well-understood and unlikely to change.
Per the CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 exam objectives, under Domain 1.11: Explain important project procurement and vendor selection concepts, understanding when to use fixed-price contracts is essential, particularly when the project scope is well-defined.
