Practice Free CV0-004 Exam Online Questions
Which of the following describes what CRUD is typically used for?
- A . Relational databases
- B . Time series databases
- C . Graph databases
- D . NoSQL databases
A
Explanation:
CRUD stands for Create, Read, Update, Delete, and it is most commonly used for interacting with relational databases. These operations form the basis of persistent storage manipulation in most applications that use a database to store data.
Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Guide to Cloud Computing (ISBN: 978-1-64274-282-2)
A cloud solutions architect needs to design a solution that will collect a report and upload it to an object storage service every time a virtual machine is gracefully or non-gracefully stopped.
Which of the following will best satisfy this requirement?
- A . An event-driven architecture that will send a message when the VM shuts down to a log-collecting function that extracts and uploads the log directly from the storage volume
- B . Creating a webhook that will trigger on VM shutdown API calls and upload the requested files from the volume attached to the VM into the object-defined storage service
- C . An API of the object-defined storage service that will scrape the stopped VM disk and self-upload the required files as objects
- D . A script embedded on the stopping VM’s OS that will upload the logs on system shutdown
A
Explanation:
An event-driven architecture is suited for this scenario, where an event (like a VM shutdown) triggers a function to execute specific tasks (log collection and upload). This approach is efficient and ensures that the logs are collected and uploaded to an object storage service every time the VM is stopped, regardless of whether it is a graceful or non-graceful shutdown.
Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide (Exam CV0-004) – Chapter on Cloud Delivery Implementations
A retail store is rolling out a new point-of-sale solution to several locations where the staff members normally use cash registers.
Which of the following activities will best assist staff members with integrating this new solution? (Select two).
- A . Documentation
- B . Team collaboration
- C . Gap analysis
- D . Training sessions
- E . Touch points
- F . Progress monitoring
A, D
Explanation:
For successful adoption of new systems, user documentation and training sessions are essential. Documentation provides reference material, while training equips staff with hands-on knowledge for daily operations. Gap analysis and monitoring are planning and control tasks but do not directly support staff integration.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 C Change Management & Training; CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-004 Operations & Support domain.
A company implements a web farm with 100 servers behind an application load balancer. Dunng scaling events, new web servers that are placed in service have not loaded all their modules, which causes some requests to the web farm to fail.
Which of the following should the cloud engineer implement to address the scaling issue?
- A . Instance warm-up
- B . Scheduled scaling
- C . Event-based scaling
- D . Load balancer passthrough
A
Explanation:
Implementing an instance warm-up period can address the issue of new web servers not having all modules loaded during scaling events. This warm-up period allows new instances to fully initialize and start serving traffic only when they are ready, preventing failed requests.
Reference: Scaling strategies and their operational impact, including the concept of instance warm-up, are covered under cloud infrastructure management in the CompTIA Cloud+ curriculum.
A cloud administrator shortens the amount of time a backup runs. An executive in the company requires a guarantee that the backups can be restored with no data loss.
Which of the following backup features should the administrator lest for?
- A . Encryption
- B . Retention
- C . Schedule
- D . Integrity
D
Explanation:
To guarantee that backups can be restored with no data loss, the administrator should test for data integrity. This ensures that the data has not been altered during the backup process and that it can be restored to its original state.
Reference: Backup integrity is a critical aspect of data management and protection, which falls under the best practices for backups and restoration in the CompTIA Cloud+ curriculum.
A banking firm’s cloud server will be decommissioned after a successful proof of concept using mirrored data.
Which of the following is the best action to take regarding the storage used on the decommissioned server?
- A . Keep it temporarily.
- B . Archive it.
- C . Delete it.
- D . Retain it permanently
B
Explanation:
When a cloud server is decommissioned after a proof of concept, the best action to take regarding the storage used on the server is to archive it. Archiving ensures that the data is kept in a less accessible but secure storage service, which may be required for regulatory or compliance reasons, especially for a banking firm.
Reference: Data management strategies, including archiving decommissioned data, are covered in the CompTIA Cloud+ examination objectives, particularly within the domain of management and technical operations.
Which of the following is a customer be responsible for in a provider-managed database service? (Select two).
- A . Operating system patches
- B . Table-level permissions
- C . Minor database engine updates
- D . Cluster configuration
- E . Row-level encryption
- F . Availability of hardware for scaling
BE
Explanation:
In a provider-managed database service, the cloud provider typically manages the infrastructure, operating system, and database engine updates. However, the customer is responsible for the data and its security within the database, which includes setting table-level permissions and row-level encryption to ensure that data access and security is managed appropriately.
Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Guide to Cloud Computing (ISBN: 978-1-64274-282-2)
A company’s content management system (CMS) service runs on an laaS cluster on a public cloud.
The CMS service is frequently targeted by a malicious threat actor using DDoS.
Which of the following should a cloud engineer monitor to identify attacks?
- A . Network flow logs
- B . Endpoint detection and response logs
- C . Cloud provider event logs
- D . Instance syslog
A
Explanation:
To identify DDoS attacks against a CMS service, a cloud engineer should monitor network flow logs. These logs provide data about the IP traffic going to and from network interfaces in a public cloud,
which is essential for detecting the increased traffic volumes typically associated with DDoS attacks.
Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide (Exam CV0-004) – Chapter on Security in the Cloud
Which of the following is used to deliver code quickly and efficiently across the development, test, and production environments?
- A . Snapshot
- B . Container image
- C . Serverless function
- D . VM template
B
Explanation:
A container image is used to deliver code quickly and efficiently across the development, test, and production environments. Container images are lightweight, standalone, executable software packages that include everything needed to run a piece of software, including the code, runtime, system tools, libraries, and settings.
Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide (Exam CV0-004) – Chapter on Cloud Deployment Methods
Which of the following technologies should be used by a person who is visually impaired to access data from the cloud?
- A . Object character recognition
- B . Text-to-voice
- C . Sentiment analysis
- D . Visual recognition
B
Explanation:
Text-to-voice (or text-to-speech) technology should be used by a person who is visually impaired to access data from the cloud. It converts text data into audible speech, allowing visually impaired individuals to receive the information audibly.
Reference: CompTIA Accessibility in IT Study Guide.