Practice Free CV0-004 Exam Online Questions
Participant attendance has been poor at the last few weekly meetings. The project manager wants to validate who the participants should be, how often the meetings should occur, and on which day and at what time the meeting should be held.
Which of the following is the best place to validate this information?
- A . Project communication plan
- B . Project management plan
- C . Project business case
- D . Project schedule
A
Explanation:
The communication plan defines the meeting cadence, frequency, participants, formats, and methods of communication. If participation is low, the project manager refers to this plan for validation and adjustment. This is part of governance and compliance to ensure the right stakeholders are engaged appropriately.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Study Guide C Communications Management; CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-004 Governance & Compliance objectives.
A cloud administrator is building a company-standard VM image, which will be based on a public image.
Which of the following should the administrator implement to secure the image?
- A . ACLs
- B . Least privilege
- C . Hardening
- D . Vulnerability scanning
C
Explanation:
Hardening a VM image involves implementing security measures to reduce vulnerabilities and protect against threats. This process includes removing unnecessary software, services, and permissions, ensuring that the remaining software is updated with the latest security patches, and configuring settings to enhance security. Starting with a public image, the administrator should apply hardening techniques to ensure the custom company-standard VM image is secure and resilient against attacks.
Project team members enter their time sheets into a system that also displays incurred project cost.
Which of the following systems can perform this task?
- A . EDRMS
- B . CRM
- C . CMS
- D . ERP
D
Explanation:
An ERP (Enterprise Resource Planning) system integrates financial management, HR, and operations.
In this case, ERP can handle time tracking and cost reporting together. EDRMS manages documents,
CRM handles customer relationships, and CMS manages content―not project costs.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 C Enterprise Systems; CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-004 Cloud Storage & Data Management domain.
A cloud engineer needs to migrate an application from on premises to a public cloud. Due to timing constraints, the application cannot be changed prior to migration.
Which of the following migration strategies is best approach for this use case?
- A . Retire
- B . Rearchitect
- C . Refactor
- D . Rehost
D
Explanation:
Rehosting, often referred to as "lift-and-shift," is the process of migrating an application or workload to the cloud without modifying it. This approach is suitable when there are timing constraints that prevent making changes to the application prior to migration. Rehosting can be the quickest migration strategy since it involves moving the existing applications to the cloud with minimal changes.
Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ resources and cloud migration strategies
Given the following command:
Sdocker pull images.comptia.org/user1/myimage:latest.
Which of the following correctly identifies images.comptia.org?
- A . Image registry
- B . Image creator
- C . Image version
- D . Image name
A
Explanation:
In the Docker pull command given, images.comptia.org represents the image registry. A Docker image registry is a collection of repositories that host Docker images. It is where images are stored and organized, and from where they can be pulled for deployment.
Reference: Docker and container management concepts, including image registries, are part of the cloud services understanding in the CompTIA Cloud+ curriculum.
An IT manager is migrating the production environment to the cloud but needs to keep control of the operating systems, patches, and settings of all resources.
Which of the following deployment models will best meet the requirements?
- A . FaaS
- B . PaaS
- C . laaS
- D . SaaS
C
Explanation:
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is the deployment model that will best meet the requirements of retaining control over the operating systems, patches, and settings of all resources. IaaS provides the cloud infrastructure but leaves the management of the operating system and applications to the user.
Reference: The cloud service models and the level of control they offer are fundamental topics in the CompTIA Cloud+ certification material.
A cloud deployment uses three different VPCs. The subnets on each VPC need to communicate with the others over private channels.
Which of the following will achieve this objective?
- A . Deploying a load balancer to send traffic to the private IP addresses
- B . Creating peering connections between all VPCs
- C . Adding BGP routes using the VPCs’ private IP addresses
- D . Establishing identical routing tables on all VPCs
B
Explanation:
To allow subnets on different VPCs to communicate with each other over private channels, the cloud engineer should create peering connections between all the VPCs. VPC Peering allows networks to connect and route traffic using private IP addresses without the need for gateways, VPN connections,
or separate physical hardware.
Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide (Exam CV0-004) by Todd Montgomery and Stephen Olson
A company just learned that the data in its object storage was accessed by an unauthorized party.
Which of the following should the company have done to make the data unusable?
- A . The company should have switched from object storage to file storage.
- B . The company should have hashed the data.
- C . The company should have changed the file access permissions.
- D . The company should have encrypted the data at rest.
D
Explanation:
Encrypting the data at rest is a crucial security measure to make the data unusable to unauthorized parties. If the object storage data was accessed by an unauthorized party, having the data encrypted would ensure that the data remains confidential and inaccessible without the proper encryption keys, thus mitigating the impact of the breach.
Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ resources and data security practices
Which of the following is true of SSDs?
- A . SSDs do not have self-encrypting capabilities.
- B . SSDs have small storage capacities.
- C . SSDs can be used for high-IOP applications.
- D . SSDs are used mostly in cold storage.
C
Explanation:
SSDs (Solid State Drives) are known for their high performance and can handle a high number of input/output operations per second (IOPS). This makes them ideal for applications and workloads that require rapid access to storage, such as databases and high-performance computing applications.
Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide (Exam CV0-004) – Chapter on Cloud Storage Options
A project stakeholder has asked the project manager to provide the performance data of a project.
Which of the following should the project manager send to the stakeholder?
- A . Issue log
- B . Dashboard
- C . WBS
- D . Milestone chart
B
Explanation:
A dashboard provides visual, real-time performance data such as KPIs, budget usage, and progress toward deliverables. This helps stakeholders quickly interpret project health. Milestones only show schedule checkpoints, and issue logs track problems, not overall performance.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 C Reporting Tools & Stakeholder Communication; CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-004 Operations & Support domain.