Practice Free CV0-004 Exam Online Questions
A cloud engineer was deploying the company’s payment processing application, but it failed with the following error log:
ERFOR:root: Transaction failed http 429 response, please try again.
Which of the following are the most likely causes for this error? (Select two).
- A . API throttling
- B . API gateway outage
- C . Web server outage
- D . Oversubscription
- E . Unauthorized access
- F . Insufficient quota
A, F
Explanation:
The error "http 429 response, please try again" typically indicates API throttling, where the number of requests exceeds the rate limit set by the API provider, and insufficient quota, where the allowed number of API calls within a given timeframe has been exceeded.
Reference: API throttling and quota management are key concepts in the management of cloud resources, as highlighted in the CompTIA Cloud+ curriculum.
A group of cloud administrators frequently uses the same deployment template to recreate a cloud-based development environment. The administrators are unable to go back and review the history of changes they have made to the template.
Which of the following cloud resource deployment concepts should the administrator start using?
- A . Drift detection
- B . Repeatability
- C . Documentation
- D . Versioning
D
Explanation:
Versioning is a concept that allows cloud administrators to keep track of the history of changes made to deployment templates or any other configuration file. By using version control systems, they can review previous versions, roll back to earlier configurations if necessary, and understand the evolution of the deployment template over time.
Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Guide to Cloud Computing (ISBN: 978-1-64274-282-2)
A cloud administrator needs to collect process-level, memory-usage tracking for the virtual machines that are part of an autoscaling group.
Which of the following is the best way to accomplish the goal by using cloud-native monitoring services?
- A . Configuring page file/swap metrics
- B . Deploying the cloud-monitoring agent software
- C . Scheduling a script to collect the data
- D . Enabling memory monitoring in the VM configuration
B
Explanation:
To collect process-level, memory-usage tracking for virtual machines, deploying cloud-monitoring agent software is the best approach. The agent can gather detailed system metrics and send them to the cloud-native monitoring services for analysis and visualization.
Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide (Exam CV0-004) – Chapter on Cloud Monitoring
For compliance purposes, a cloud developer at an insurance company needs to save all customer policies for more than ten years.
Which of the following options is the most cost-efficient tier to save the data in the cloud?
- A . Archive
- B . Hot
- C . Cold
- D . Warm
A
Explanation:
For compliance purposes, saving customer policies for more than ten years most cost-efficiently can be achieved by using the Archive storage tier. Archive or archival storage is designed for data that needs to be retained over the long term but accessed infrequently. It is generally the most cost-effective storage tier for this type of data.
Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide (Exam CV0-004) by Todd Montgomery and Stephen Olson
A project manager is reviewing quality planning techniques.
Which of the following involves comparing results of similar activities?
- A . Performing a cost-benefit analysis
- B . Defining metrics
- C . Benchmarking
- D . Brainstorming
C
Explanation:
Benchmarking is a quality technique that compares results, processes, or best practices from similar activities or organizations. It helps set realistic performance standards and identify improvement opportunities. Unlike cost-benefit analysis (financial), benchmarking focuses on performance comparison.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 C Quality Planning Techniques; CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-004 Operations & Support domain.
Which of the following would help a project manager identify that project goals have been reached?
- A . Audit report
- B . Key performance indicators
- C . Backlog
- D . Lessons learned
B
Explanation:
KPIs (Key Performance Indicators) are measurable values tied to project goals. If KPIs are being met, the PM can confirm that the project outcomes align with objectives. Audit reports verify compliance, while lessons learned capture knowledge at project closure.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 C Performance Measurement; CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-004 Operations and Support domain.
A customer’s facility is located in an area where natural disasters happen frequently.
The customer requires the following:
• Data resiliency due to exposure to frequent natural disasters
• Data localization because of privacy regulations in the country
• High availability
Which of the following cloud resources should be provisioned to meet these requirements?
- A . Storage in a separate data center located in same region
- B . An on-premises private cloud carrying duplicate data
- C . Storage in an availability zone outside the region
- D . Storage in the same availability zone as the primary data
C
Explanation:
To meet the requirements of data resiliency, data localization, and high availability in a region prone to natural disasters, the customer should provision storage in an availability zone outside the region. This ensures that data is not affected by regional disasters and complies with data localization by remaining within the country’s borders, while also providing high availability.
Reference: Disaster recovery and high availability strategies, including the use of multiple availability zones, are discussed in the CompTIA Cloud+ certification material.
An engineer made a change to an application and needs to select a deployment strategy that meets the following requirements:
• Is simple and fast
• Can be performed on two Identical platforms
Which of the following strategies should the engineer use?
- A . Blue-green
- B . Canary
- C . Rolling
- D . in-place
A
Explanation:
The blue-green deployment strategy is ideal for scenarios where simplicity and speed are crucial. It involves two identical production environments: one (blue) hosts the current application version, while the other (green) is used to deploy the new version. Once testing is completed on the green environment and it’s ready to go live, traffic is switched from blue to green, ensuring a quick and efficient rollout with minimal downtime. This method allows for immediate rollback if issues arise, by simply redirecting the traffic back to the blue environment.
Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ material emphasizes the importance of understanding various cloud deployment strategies, including blue-green, and their application in real-world scenarios to ensure efficient and reliable software deployment in cloud environments.
A customer is migrating applications to the cloud and wants to grant authorization based on the classification levels of each system.
Which of the following should the customer implement to ensure authorisation to systems is granted when the user and system classification properties match? (Select two).
- A . Resource tagging
- B . Discretionary access control
- C . Multifactor authentication
- D . Role-based access control
- E . Token-based authentication
- F . Bastion host
B, D
Explanation:
Discretionary Access Control (DAC) and Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) are effective methods for granting authorization based on system classification levels. DAC allows resource owners to grant access rights, making it flexible for environments with varying classification levels. RBAC assigns permissions based on roles within an organization, aligning access rights with the user’s job functions and ensuring that users access only what is necessary for their role, which can be mapped to system classifications.
Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ content covers various access control models, emphasizing the importance of implementing appropriate security measures that align with organizational policies and classification levels to ensure secure and authorized access to cloud systems.
Which of the following is an auditing procedure that ensures service providers securely manage the data to protect the interests of the organization and the privacy of its clients?
- A . CIS
- B . ITIL
- C . SOC2
- D . ISO 27001
C
Explanation:
SOC2 (Service Organization Control 2) is an auditing procedure that ensures service providers securely manage data to protect the interests of an organization and the privacy of its clients. SOC2 is specifically designed for service providers storing customer data in the cloud, making it pertinent for data management and privacy.
Reference: SOC2 and its role in auditing and ensuring secure data management by cloud service providers are part of the compliance standards and regulations included in the CompTIA Cloud+ certification material.