Practice Free CISA Exam Online Questions
Which of the following types of environmental equipment will MOST likely be deployed below the floor tiles of a data center?
- A . Temperature sensors
- B . Humidity sensors
- C . Water sensors
- D . Air pressure sensors
C
Explanation:
Water sensors are devices that can detect the presence of water or moisture in a given area. They are often deployed below the floor tiles of a data center to monitor for any water leaks that may damage the equipment or cause electrical hazards. Water sensors can alert the data center staff or trigger an automatic response to prevent or mitigate the water leakage.
The other options are not likely to be deployed below the floor tiles of a data center. Temperature sensors and humidity sensors are usually deployed above the floor tiles to measure the ambient conditions of the data center and ensure optimal cooling and ventilation. Air pressure sensors are typically deployed at the air vents or ducts to monitor the airflow and pressure distribution in the data center.
Reference: Data Center Environmental Monitoring
Water Detection in Data Centers
Which of the following will be the MOST effective method to verify that a service vendor keeps control levels as required by the client?
- A . Conduct periodic onsite assessments using agreed-upon criteria.
- B . Conduct an unannounced vulnerability assessment of the vendor’s IT systems.
- C . Periodically review the service level agreement (SLA) with the vendor.
- D . Obtain evidence of the vendor’s control self-assessment (CSA).
A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step
To ensure that aservice vendor maintains required control levels, direct verification throughonsite assessmentsis the most effective approach.
Option A (Correct): Onsite assessmentsallow auditors todirectly reviewcontrols, procedures, and evidence of compliancein real time, ensuring that service levels are being met.
Option B (Incorrect): Unannounced vulnerability assessments may violatecontractual agreementsand ethical considerations.
Option C (Incorrect): Reviewing theSLAensures agreement terms are clear but doesnot verify actual compliance.
Option D (Incorrect): AControl Self-Assessment (CSA) is useful but relies onvendor-provided information, which may be biased or incomplete.
Reference: ISACA CISA Review Manual CDomain 4: Information Systems Operations and Business ResilienceC Covers third-party risk management and audit approaches.
Providing security certification for a new system should include which of the following prior to the system’s implementation?
- A . End-user authorization to use the system in production
- B . External audit sign-off on financial controls
- C . Testing of the system within the production environment
- D . An evaluation of the configuration management practices
D
Explanation:
Providing security certification for a new system should include an evaluation of the configuration
management practices prior to the system’s implementation. Configuration management is a process that ensures that the system’s components are identified, controlled, and tracked throughout the system’s lifecycle. Configuration management helps to maintain the security and integrity of the system by preventing unauthorized or unintended changes. End-user authorization to use the system in production is not part of security certification, but rather a post-implementation activity that grants access rights to authorized users. External audit sign-off on financial controls is not part of security certification, but rather a verification activity that ensures that the system complies with financial reporting standards. Testing of the system within the production environment is not part of securitycertification, but rather a validation activity that ensures that the system meets the functional and performance requirements.
Reference: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, pages 449-4501
CISA Review Questions, Answers& Explanations Database, Question ID: 2572
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration to facilitate prosecution of a perpetrator after a cybercrime?
- A . An active intrusion detection system (IDS)
- B . Professional collection of unaltered evidence
- C . Reporting to the internal legal department
- D . Immediate law enforcement involvement
B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step
Forensic evidence must be legally admissible, unaltered, and properly collected to support prosecution.
Option A (Incorrect): While an IDS helps detect cybercrime, it does not ensure evidence collection or legal admissibility.
Option B (Correct): The professional collection of unaltered evidence follows forensic standards, including chain of custody, ensuring that the evidence is admissible in court. This is the most critical factor in prosecuting cybercriminals.
Option C (Incorrect): Internal legal reporting is necessary but does not directly impact evidence preservation, which is key for legal action.
Option D (Incorrect): Law enforcement involvement is important, but without properly collected evidence, prosecution is unlikely to succeed.
Reference: ISACA CISA Review Manual CDomain 5: Protection of Information AssetsC Covers forensic investigation, evidence collection, and chain of custody principles.
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when implementing a Zero Trust strategy for mobile, wireless, and Internet of Things (IoT) devices?
- A . Ensuring the latest firmware updates are applied regularly to all devices
- B . Validating the identity of all devices and users before granting access to resources
- C . Focusing on user training and awareness to prevent phishing attacks
- D . Implementing strong encryption protocols for data in transit and at rest
B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step
Zero Trustis based on the principle of"never trust, always verify, "makingidentity validationthe most critical aspect.
Option A (Incorrect): Firmware updatesare important for security but are onlyone partof aZero Trustapproach.
Option B (Correct): Device and user identity validationensures that onlyauthorizedentities can accesscritical resources, reducing the risk of unauthorized access.
Option C (Incorrect): User awarenessis important but does not enforce access control, which isfundamentalto Zero Trust.
Option D (Incorrect): Encryptionsecures data but does not controlwho can access resources, which is the primary focus of Zero Trust.
Reference: ISACA CISA Review Manual CDomain 5: Protection of Information AssetsC CoversZero Trust security models and access control best practices.
Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with security patches being automatically downloaded and applied to production servers?
- A . Supporting documentation is not updated.
- B . Anti-malware is disabled during patch installation.
- C . Patches may be installed regardless of their criticality.
- D . Patches may result in major service failures.
D
Explanation:
The greatest risk associated with security patches being automatically downloaded and applied to production servers is that patches may result in major service failures, as they may introduce new bugs, conflicts, or incompatibilities that could affect the functionality, performance, or availability of the servers12. Automatic patching may also bypass the testing and validation processes that are necessary to ensure the quality and reliability of the patches34.
Reference
1: Do you leave Windows Automatic Updates enabled on your production IIS server? – Server Fault1 2: Azure now installs security updates on Windows VMs automatically3 3: Server Patch Management | Process of Server Patching – ManageEngine2 4: Windows Security Updates | Microsoft Patch Updates Guide – ManageEngine4
Which of the following is the BEST evidence that an organization’s IT strategy is aligned lo its business objectives?
- A . The IT strategy is modified in response to organizational change.
- B . The IT strategy is approved by executive management.
- C . The IT strategy is based on IT operational best practices.
- D . The IT strategy has significant impact on the business strategy
B
Explanation:
The best evidence that an organization’s IT strategy is aligned to its business objectives is that the IT strategy is approved by executive management. This implies that the IT strategy has been reviewed and validated by the senior leaders of the organization, who are responsible for setting and overseeing the business objectives. The IT strategy may be modified inresponse to organizational change, based on IT operational best practices, or have significant impact on the business strategy, but these are not sufficient indicators of alignment without executive approval.
Reference: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1
Which of the following provides the MOST reliable audit evidence on the validity of transactions in a financial application?
- A . Walk-through reviews
- B . Substantive testing
- C . Compliance testing
- D . Design documentation reviews
B
Explanation:
Substantive testing provides the most reliable audit evidence on the validity of transactions in a financial application. Substantive testing is an audit procedure that examines the financial statements and supporting documentation to see if they contain errors or misstatements. Substantive testing can help to verify that the transactions recorded in the financial applicationare authorized, complete, accurate, and properly classified. Substantive testing can include methods such as vouching, confirmation, analytical procedures, or physical examination.
An IS auditor reviewing the system development life cycle (SDLC) finds there is no requirement for business cases.
Which of the following should be off GREATEST concern to the organization?
- A . Vendor selection criteria are not sufficiently evaluated.
- B . Business resources have not been optimally assigned.
- C . Business impacts of projects are not adequately analyzed.
- D . Project costs exceed established budgets.
Which of the following should an IS auditor review when evaluating information systems governance for a large organization?
- A . Approval processes for new system implementations
- B . Procedures for adding a new user to the invoice processing system
- C . Approval processes for updating the corporate website
- D . Procedures for regression testing system changes
A
Explanation:
Information systems governance is the set of policies, processes, structures, and practices that ensure the alignment of IT with business objectives, the delivery of value from IT investments, the management of IT risks, and the optimization of IT resources1. Information systems governance is a strategic and high-level function that covers the entire organization and its IT portfolio. Therefore, an IS auditor should review the aspects of information systems governance that are relevant to the organization’s vision, mission, goals, and strategies.
One of the aspects that an IS auditor should review when evaluating information systems governance for a large organization is the approval processes for new system implementations. This is because new system implementations are significant IT investments that require careful planning, analysis, design, development, testing, deployment, and evaluation to ensure that they meet the business requirements, deliver the expected benefits, comply with the relevant standards and regulations, and minimize the potential risks2. The approval processes for new system implementations should involve the appropriate stakeholders, such as senior management, business owners, IT managers, project managers, users, and auditors, who have the authority and responsibility to approve or reject the proposed system implementations based on predefined criteria and metrics3. The approval processes for new system implementations should also be documented, transparent, consistent, and timely to ensure accountability and traceability4. Therefore, an IS auditor should review the approval processes for new system implementations to assess whether they are aligned with the information systems governance framework and objectives.
The other possible options are:
Procedures for adding a new user to the invoice processing system: This is an operational task that involves granting access rights and permissions to a specific user for a specific system based on the principle of least privilege. This is not a strategic or high-level function that falls under information systems governance. Therefore, an IS auditor should not review this aspect when evaluating information systems governance for a large organization.
Approval processes for updating the corporate website: This is a tactical task that involves making changes or enhancements to the content or design of the corporate website based on the business needs and feedback. This is not a strategic or high-level function that falls under information systems governance. Therefore, an IS auditor should not review this aspect when evaluating information systems governance for a large organization.
Procedures for regression testing system changes: This is a technical task that involves verifying that existing system functionalities are not adversely affected by new system changes or updates. This is not a strategic or high-level function that falls under information systems governance. Therefore, an IS auditor should not review this aspect when evaluating information systems governance for a large organization.
Reference: 1: What is IT Governance? – Definition from Techopedia 2: System Implementation – an overview | ScienceDirect Topics 3: Project Approval Process – Project Management Knowledge 4: 5 Best Practices For A Successful Project Approval Process | Kissflow Project: Principle of Least Privilege (POLP) | Imperva: How to Update Your Website Content – 7 Step Guide | HostGator Blog: What Is Regression Testing? Definition & Best Practices | BrowserStack
