Practice Free CISA Exam Online Questions
Question #321
An IS auditor is reviewing an industrial control system (ICS) that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit.
What should the auditor consider the MOST significant concern?
- A . Attack vectors are evolving for industrial control systems.
- B . There is a greater risk of system exploitation.
- C . Disaster recovery plans (DRPs) are not in place.
- D . Technical specifications are not documented.
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
The most significant concern for an IS auditor when reviewing an industrial control system (ICS) that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit is that there is a greater risk of system exploitation. System exploitation is an attack that occurs when an unauthorized entity or individual takes advantage of a vulnerability or weakness in a system to compromise its security or functionality. System exploitation can cause harm or damage to the system or its users, such as data loss, corruption, theft, manipulation, denial of service (DoS), etc. An ICS that uses older unsupported technology poses a high risk of system exploitation, as older technology may have known or unknown vulnerabilities or defects that have not been patched or fixed by the vendor or manufacturer, and unsupported technology may not receive any updates or support from the vendor or manufacturer in case of issues or incidents. Attack vectors are evolving for industrial control systems is a possible concern for an IS auditor when reviewing an ICS that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit, but it is not the most significant one. Attack vectors are methods or pathways that attackers use to gain access to or attack a system. Attack vectors are evolving for industrial control systems, as attackers are developing new techniques or tools to target ICSs that are increasingly connected and complex. However, this concern may not be specific to older unsupported technology, as it may affect any ICS regardless of its technology level. Disaster recovery plans (DRPs) are not in place is a possible concern for an IS auditor when reviewing an ICS that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit, but it is not the most significant one. DRPs are documents that outline the technical and operational steps for restoring the IT systems and infrastructure that support critical functions or processes in the event of a disruption or disaster. DRPs are not in place, as they may affect the availability and continuity of the ICS and its functions or processes in case of a failure or incident. However, this concern may not be related to older unsupported technology, as it may apply to any ICS regardless of its technology level. Technical specifications are not documented is a possible concern for an IS auditor when reviewing an ICS that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit, but it is not the most significant one. Technical specifications are documents that describe the technical characteristics or requirements of a system or component, such as functionality, performance, design, etc. Technical specifications are not documented, as they may affect the understanding, maintenance, and improvement of the ICS and its components. However, this concern may not beassociated with older unsupported technology, as it may affect any ICS regardless of its technology level.
B
Explanation:
The most significant concern for an IS auditor when reviewing an industrial control system (ICS) that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit is that there is a greater risk of system exploitation. System exploitation is an attack that occurs when an unauthorized entity or individual takes advantage of a vulnerability or weakness in a system to compromise its security or functionality. System exploitation can cause harm or damage to the system or its users, such as data loss, corruption, theft, manipulation, denial of service (DoS), etc. An ICS that uses older unsupported technology poses a high risk of system exploitation, as older technology may have known or unknown vulnerabilities or defects that have not been patched or fixed by the vendor or manufacturer, and unsupported technology may not receive any updates or support from the vendor or manufacturer in case of issues or incidents. Attack vectors are evolving for industrial control systems is a possible concern for an IS auditor when reviewing an ICS that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit, but it is not the most significant one. Attack vectors are methods or pathways that attackers use to gain access to or attack a system. Attack vectors are evolving for industrial control systems, as attackers are developing new techniques or tools to target ICSs that are increasingly connected and complex. However, this concern may not be specific to older unsupported technology, as it may affect any ICS regardless of its technology level. Disaster recovery plans (DRPs) are not in place is a possible concern for an IS auditor when reviewing an ICS that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit, but it is not the most significant one. DRPs are documents that outline the technical and operational steps for restoring the IT systems and infrastructure that support critical functions or processes in the event of a disruption or disaster. DRPs are not in place, as they may affect the availability and continuity of the ICS and its functions or processes in case of a failure or incident. However, this concern may not be related to older unsupported technology, as it may apply to any ICS regardless of its technology level. Technical specifications are not documented is a possible concern for an IS auditor when reviewing an ICS that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit, but it is not the most significant one. Technical specifications are documents that describe the technical characteristics or requirements of a system or component, such as functionality, performance, design, etc. Technical specifications are not documented, as they may affect the understanding, maintenance, and improvement of the ICS and its components. However, this concern may not beassociated with older unsupported technology, as it may affect any ICS regardless of its technology level.
Question #322
Which of the following protocols should be used when transferring data via the internet?
- A . User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
- B . Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
- C . Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP)
- D . Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step
SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) is the most secure option for transferring data over the internet, as it encrypts both commands and data, ensuring confidentiality and integrity.
SFTP (Correct Answer C C)
Uses SSH (Secure Shell) for encryption.
Provides authentication and encryption for secure data transfers.
Example: A company uses SFTP to securely transmit payroll files to a third-party processor.
UDP (Incorrect C A)
Faster but lacks encryption and data integrity checks.
HTTP (Incorrect C B)
Transfers data in plaintext and is vulnerable to interception.
RDP (Incorrect C D)
Used for remote desktop access, not secure file transfers.
Reference: ISACA CISA Review Manual
NIST 800-52 (Guidelines for Transport Layer Security)
C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step
SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) is the most secure option for transferring data over the internet, as it encrypts both commands and data, ensuring confidentiality and integrity.
SFTP (Correct Answer C C)
Uses SSH (Secure Shell) for encryption.
Provides authentication and encryption for secure data transfers.
Example: A company uses SFTP to securely transmit payroll files to a third-party processor.
UDP (Incorrect C A)
Faster but lacks encryption and data integrity checks.
HTTP (Incorrect C B)
Transfers data in plaintext and is vulnerable to interception.
RDP (Incorrect C D)
Used for remote desktop access, not secure file transfers.
Reference: ISACA CISA Review Manual
NIST 800-52 (Guidelines for Transport Layer Security)
Question #323
Which of the following presents the GREATEST risk of data leakage in the cloud environment?
- A . Lack of data retention policy
- B . Multi-tenancy within the same database
- C . Lack of role-based access
- D . Expiration of security certificate
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Multi-tenancy within the same database (B) presents the greatest risk of data leakage in the cloud environment, because it means that multiple customers share the same physical database and resources. This can lead to data isolation and security issues, such as unauthorized access, cross-tenant attacks, or data leakage due to misconfiguration or human error. To prevent data leakage in a multi-tenant database, cloud providers need to implement strict access control policies, encryption, isolation mechanisms, and auditing tools.
Lack of data retention policy (A) is not the greatest risk of data leakage in the cloud environment, because it mainly affects the availability and compliance of data, not its confidentiality or integrity. Data retention policy defines how long data should be stored and when it should be deleted or archived. Without a data retention policy, cloud customers may face legal or regulatory issues, storage costs, or performance degradation.
Lack of role-based access © is not the greatest risk of data leakage in the cloud environment, because it can be mitigated by implementing proper authentication and authorization mechanisms. Role-based access control (RBAC) is a security model that assigns permissions and privileges to users based on their roles and responsibilities. Without RBAC, cloud customers may face unauthorized access, privilege escalation, or data misuse.
Expiration of security certificate (D) is not the greatest risk of data leakage in the cloud environment, because it can be easily detected and renewed. A security certificate is a digital document that verifies the identity and authenticity of a website or service. It also enables secure communication using encryption. If a security certificate expires, it may cause trust issues, warning messages, or connection errors, but not necessarily data leakage.
Reference: 7 Ways to Prevent Data Leaks in the Cloud | OTAVA®
An analysis of data leakage and prevention techniques in cloud environment
B
Explanation:
Multi-tenancy within the same database (B) presents the greatest risk of data leakage in the cloud environment, because it means that multiple customers share the same physical database and resources. This can lead to data isolation and security issues, such as unauthorized access, cross-tenant attacks, or data leakage due to misconfiguration or human error. To prevent data leakage in a multi-tenant database, cloud providers need to implement strict access control policies, encryption, isolation mechanisms, and auditing tools.
Lack of data retention policy (A) is not the greatest risk of data leakage in the cloud environment, because it mainly affects the availability and compliance of data, not its confidentiality or integrity. Data retention policy defines how long data should be stored and when it should be deleted or archived. Without a data retention policy, cloud customers may face legal or regulatory issues, storage costs, or performance degradation.
Lack of role-based access © is not the greatest risk of data leakage in the cloud environment, because it can be mitigated by implementing proper authentication and authorization mechanisms. Role-based access control (RBAC) is a security model that assigns permissions and privileges to users based on their roles and responsibilities. Without RBAC, cloud customers may face unauthorized access, privilege escalation, or data misuse.
Expiration of security certificate (D) is not the greatest risk of data leakage in the cloud environment, because it can be easily detected and renewed. A security certificate is a digital document that verifies the identity and authenticity of a website or service. It also enables secure communication using encryption. If a security certificate expires, it may cause trust issues, warning messages, or connection errors, but not necessarily data leakage.
Reference: 7 Ways to Prevent Data Leaks in the Cloud | OTAVA®
An analysis of data leakage and prevention techniques in cloud environment
Question #324
Which of the following is the GREATEST advantage of vulnerability scanning over penetration testing?
- A . The testing produces a lower number of false positive results
- B . Network bandwidth is utilized more efficiently
- C . Custom-developed applications can be tested more accurately
- D . The testing process can be automated to cover large groups of assets
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The greatest advantage of vulnerability scanning over penetration testing is that the testing process can be automated to cover large groups of assets. Vulnerability scanning is an automated, high-level security test that reports its findings of known vulnerabilities in systems, networks, applications, and devices. Vulnerability scanning can be performed frequently, quickly, and efficiently to scan a large number of assets and identify potential weaknesses that need to be addressed. Vulnerability scanning can also help organizations comply with security standards and regulations, such as PCI DSS1.
The other options are not as advantageous as option D, as they may not reflect the true benefits or limitations of vulnerability scanning compared to penetration testing. The testing produces a lower number of false positive results, but this is not necessarily true, as vulnerability scanning may report vulnerabilities that are not exploitable or relevant in the context of the organization. Network bandwidth is utilized more efficiently, but this may not be a significant advantage, as vulnerability scanning may still consume considerable network resources depending on the scope and frequency of the scans. Custom-developed applications can be tested more accurately, but this is also not true, as vulnerability scanning may not be able to detect complex or unknown vulnerabilities that require manual analysis or exploitation.
Reference: 1: Vulnerability scanning vs penetration testing: What’s the difference? | TechRepublic
2: Vulnerability Scanning vs. Penetration Testing – Fortinet
3: Penetration Test Vs Vulnerability Scan | Digital Defense
4: Penetration Testing vs. Vulnerability Scanning: What’s the difference?
5: Penetration Testing vs. Vulnerability Scanning | Secureworks
6: PCI DSS Quick Reference Guide – PCI Security Standards Council
D
Explanation:
The greatest advantage of vulnerability scanning over penetration testing is that the testing process can be automated to cover large groups of assets. Vulnerability scanning is an automated, high-level security test that reports its findings of known vulnerabilities in systems, networks, applications, and devices. Vulnerability scanning can be performed frequently, quickly, and efficiently to scan a large number of assets and identify potential weaknesses that need to be addressed. Vulnerability scanning can also help organizations comply with security standards and regulations, such as PCI DSS1.
The other options are not as advantageous as option D, as they may not reflect the true benefits or limitations of vulnerability scanning compared to penetration testing. The testing produces a lower number of false positive results, but this is not necessarily true, as vulnerability scanning may report vulnerabilities that are not exploitable or relevant in the context of the organization. Network bandwidth is utilized more efficiently, but this may not be a significant advantage, as vulnerability scanning may still consume considerable network resources depending on the scope and frequency of the scans. Custom-developed applications can be tested more accurately, but this is also not true, as vulnerability scanning may not be able to detect complex or unknown vulnerabilities that require manual analysis or exploitation.
Reference: 1: Vulnerability scanning vs penetration testing: What’s the difference? | TechRepublic
2: Vulnerability Scanning vs. Penetration Testing – Fortinet
3: Penetration Test Vs Vulnerability Scan | Digital Defense
4: Penetration Testing vs. Vulnerability Scanning: What’s the difference?
5: Penetration Testing vs. Vulnerability Scanning | Secureworks
6: PCI DSS Quick Reference Guide – PCI Security Standards Council
Question #325
An internal audit department recently established a quality assurance (QA) program.
Which of the following activities Is MOST important to include as part of the QA program requirements?
- A . Long-term Internal audit resource planning
- B . Ongoing monitoring of the audit activities
- C . Analysis of user satisfaction reports from business lines
- D . Feedback from Internal audit staff
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Ongoing monitoring of the audit activities is the most important activity to include as part of the quality assurance (QA) program requirements for an internal audit department. An IS auditor should perform regular reviews and evaluations of the audit processes, methods, standards, and outcomes to ensure that they comply with the QA program objectives and criteria. This will help to maintain and improve the quality and consistency of the audit services and deliverables. The other options are less important activities to include as part of the QA program requirements, as they may involve long-term resource planning, user satisfaction reports, or feedback from internal audit staff.
Reference: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section2.61
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 224
B
Explanation:
Ongoing monitoring of the audit activities is the most important activity to include as part of the quality assurance (QA) program requirements for an internal audit department. An IS auditor should perform regular reviews and evaluations of the audit processes, methods, standards, and outcomes to ensure that they comply with the QA program objectives and criteria. This will help to maintain and improve the quality and consistency of the audit services and deliverables. The other options are less important activities to include as part of the QA program requirements, as they may involve long-term resource planning, user satisfaction reports, or feedback from internal audit staff.
Reference: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section2.61
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 224
Question #326
When planning an internal penetration test, which of the following is the MOST important step prior to finalizing the scope of testing?
- A . Ensuring the scope of penetration testing is restricted to the test environment
- B . Obtaining management’s consent to the testing scope in writing
- C . Notifying the IT security department regarding the testing scope
- D . Agreeing on systems to be excluded from the testing scope with the IT department
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Obtaining management’s consent to the testing scope in writing is the most important step prior to finalizing the scope of testing, as it ensures that the penetration testers have the authorization and approval to perform the testing activities. It also protects them from any legal liabilities or accusations of unauthorized access or damage. The other options are not as important as obtaining management’s consent, and they may vary depending on the specific situation and agreement. For example, some systems may not be excluded from the testing scope, and some tests may not be restricted to the test environment.
Reference: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) 1, page 381-382.
B
Explanation:
Obtaining management’s consent to the testing scope in writing is the most important step prior to finalizing the scope of testing, as it ensures that the penetration testers have the authorization and approval to perform the testing activities. It also protects them from any legal liabilities or accusations of unauthorized access or damage. The other options are not as important as obtaining management’s consent, and they may vary depending on the specific situation and agreement. For example, some systems may not be excluded from the testing scope, and some tests may not be restricted to the test environment.
Reference: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) 1, page 381-382.
Question #327
Which of the following will MOST likely compromise the control provided By a digital signature created using RSA encryption?
- A . Reversing the hash function using the digest
- B . Altering the plaintext message
- C . Deciphering the receiver’s public key
- D . Obtaining the sender’s private key
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A digital signature is a cryptographic technique that verifies the authenticity and integrity of a message or document, by using a hash function and an asymmetric encryption algorithm. A hash function is a mathematical function that transforms any input data into a fixed-length output value called a digest, which is unique for each input. An asymmetric encryption algorithm uses two keys: a public key and a private key. The public key can be shared with anyone, while the private key must be kept secret by the owner. To create a digital signature, the sender first applies a hash function to the plaintext message to generate a digest. Then, the sender encrypts the digest with their private key to produce the digital signature. To verify the digital signature, the receiver decrypts the digital signature with the sender’s public key to obtain the digest. Then, the receiver applies the same hash function to the plaintext message to generate another digest. If the two digests match, it means that the message has not been altered and that it came from the sender. The security of a digital signature depends on the secrecy of the sender’s private key. If an attacker obtains the sender’s private key, they can create fake digital signatures for any message they want, thus compromising the control provided by the digital signature. Reversing the hash function using the digest is not possible, as hash functions are designed to be one-way functions that cannot be inverted. Altering the plaintext message will result in a different digest after applying the hash function, which will not match with the decrypted digest from the digital signature, thus invalidating the digital signature. Deciphering the receiver’s public key is not relevant, as public keys are meant to be publicly available and do not affect the security of digital signatures.
D
Explanation:
A digital signature is a cryptographic technique that verifies the authenticity and integrity of a message or document, by using a hash function and an asymmetric encryption algorithm. A hash function is a mathematical function that transforms any input data into a fixed-length output value called a digest, which is unique for each input. An asymmetric encryption algorithm uses two keys: a public key and a private key. The public key can be shared with anyone, while the private key must be kept secret by the owner. To create a digital signature, the sender first applies a hash function to the plaintext message to generate a digest. Then, the sender encrypts the digest with their private key to produce the digital signature. To verify the digital signature, the receiver decrypts the digital signature with the sender’s public key to obtain the digest. Then, the receiver applies the same hash function to the plaintext message to generate another digest. If the two digests match, it means that the message has not been altered and that it came from the sender. The security of a digital signature depends on the secrecy of the sender’s private key. If an attacker obtains the sender’s private key, they can create fake digital signatures for any message they want, thus compromising the control provided by the digital signature. Reversing the hash function using the digest is not possible, as hash functions are designed to be one-way functions that cannot be inverted. Altering the plaintext message will result in a different digest after applying the hash function, which will not match with the decrypted digest from the digital signature, thus invalidating the digital signature. Deciphering the receiver’s public key is not relevant, as public keys are meant to be publicly available and do not affect the security of digital signatures.
Question #328
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to detect as many abnormalities as possible during an IS audit?
- A . Conduct a walk-through of the process.
- B . Perform substantive testing on sampled records.
- C . Perform judgmental sampling of key processes.
- D . Use a data analytics tool to identify trends.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A data analytics tool is the most effective way to detect as many abnormalities as possible during an IS audit, as it can process large volumes of data, perform complex calculations, and generate visualizations that reveal patterns, outliers, anomalies, or deviations from expected results. A data analytics tool can also help the auditor to test the entire population of data, rather than a sample, and to perform continuous auditing and monitoring.
Reference
ISACA CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 256
What is Problem Solving? Steps, Process & Techniques | ASQ
Data Analytics for Auditors – IIA
D
Explanation:
A data analytics tool is the most effective way to detect as many abnormalities as possible during an IS audit, as it can process large volumes of data, perform complex calculations, and generate visualizations that reveal patterns, outliers, anomalies, or deviations from expected results. A data analytics tool can also help the auditor to test the entire population of data, rather than a sample, and to perform continuous auditing and monitoring.
Reference
ISACA CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 256
What is Problem Solving? Steps, Process & Techniques | ASQ
Data Analytics for Auditors – IIA
Question #329
When determining whether a project in the design phase will meet organizational objectives, what is BEST to compare against the business case?
- A . Implementation plan
- B . Project budget provisions
- C . Requirements analysis
- D . Project plan
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Requirements analysis should be the best thing to compare against the business case when determining whether a project in the design phase will meet organizational objectives, because it defines the functional and non-functional specifications of the project deliverables that should satisfy the business needs and expectations. Requirements analysis can help evaluate whether the project design is aligned with the business case and whether it can achieve the desired outcomes and benefits. Implementation plan, project budget provisions, and project plan are also important aspects of a project in the design phase, but they are not as relevant asrequirements analysisfor comparing against the business case.
Reference: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1
C
Explanation:
Requirements analysis should be the best thing to compare against the business case when determining whether a project in the design phase will meet organizational objectives, because it defines the functional and non-functional specifications of the project deliverables that should satisfy the business needs and expectations. Requirements analysis can help evaluate whether the project design is aligned with the business case and whether it can achieve the desired outcomes and benefits. Implementation plan, project budget provisions, and project plan are also important aspects of a project in the design phase, but they are not as relevant asrequirements analysisfor comparing against the business case.
Reference: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1
Question #330
Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the IS auditor m an organization’s information classification process?
- A . Securing information assets in accordance with the classification assigned
- B . Validating that assets are protected according to assigned classification
- C . Ensuring classification levels align with regulatory guidelines
- D . Defining classification levels for information assets within the organization
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Validating that assets are protected according to assigned classification is the primary role of the IS auditor in an organization’s information classification process. An IS auditor should evaluate whether the information security controls are adequate and effective in safeguarding the information assets based on their classification levels. The other options are not the primary role of the IS auditor, but rather the responsibilities of the information owners, custodians, or security managers.
Reference: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 6, Section 6.2.31
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 206
B
Explanation:
Validating that assets are protected according to assigned classification is the primary role of the IS auditor in an organization’s information classification process. An IS auditor should evaluate whether the information security controls are adequate and effective in safeguarding the information assets based on their classification levels. The other options are not the primary role of the IS auditor, but rather the responsibilities of the information owners, custodians, or security managers.
Reference: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 6, Section 6.2.31
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 206