Practice Free CCSK Exam Online Questions
Which of the following is NOT a cloud computing characteristic that impacts incidence response?
- A . The on demand self-service nature of cloud computing environments.
- B . Privacy concerns for co-tenants regarding the collection and analysis of telemetry and artifacts associated with an incident.
- C . The possibility of data crossing geographic or jurisdictional boundaries.
- D . Object-based storage in a private cloud.
- E . The resource pooling practiced by cloud services, in addition to the rapid elasticity offered by cloud infrastructures.
A security failure at the root network of a cloud provider will not compromise the security of all customers because of multitenancy configuration.
- A . False
- B . True
Which of the following events should be monitored according to CIS AWS benchmarks?
- A . Regular file backups
- B . Data encryption at rest
- C . Successful login attempts
- D . Unauthorized API calls
D
Explanation:
According to the CIS AWS (Center for Internet Security AWS) benchmarks, unauthorized API calls should be closely monitored because they indicate potential security threats or malicious activity within the AWS environment. Monitoring unauthorized API calls helps detect unauthorized access, misconfigurations, or attempts to exploit cloud resources. It’s a key part of maintaining a secure AWS environment and helps ensure compliance with security best practices.
Regular file backups are important but not specifically a focus of the CIS AWS benchmarks. Data encryption at rest is a security best practice but monitoring unauthorized API calls directly addresses access control and security within the environment. Successful login attempts are important but monitoring failed login attempts (as opposed to successful ones) is generally a better practice for identifying suspicious activity.
Which of the following best describes the Identity Provider (IdP) and its role in managing access to deployments?
- A . The IdP is used for authentication purposes and does not play a role in managing access to deployments.
- B . The IdP manages user, group, and role mappings for access to deployments across cloud providers.
- C . The IdP solely manages access within a deployment and resides within the deployment
infrastructure. - D . The IdP is responsible for creating deployments and setting up access policies within a single cloud provider.
B
Explanation:
An Identity Provider (IdP) is responsible for authentication and authorization, particularly by managing user identities and their roles across various systems and services. In a cloud environment, the IdP facilitates the management of user, group, and role mappings that determine which users have access to which resources, including deployments across different cloud providers. The IdP acts as the central authority for managing identities and ensuring that users are granted appropriate access based on their roles and credentials.
What is true of searching data across cloud environments?
- A . You might not have the ability or administrative rights to search or access all hosted data.
- B . The cloud provider must conduct the search with the full administrative controls.
- C . All cloud-hosted email accounts are easily searchable.
- D . Search and discovery time is always factored into a contract between the consumer and provider.
- E . You can easily search across your environment using any E-Discovery tool.
Which of the following is NOT normally a method for detecting and preventing data migration into the cloud?
- A . Intrusion Prevention System
- B . URL filters
- C . Data Loss Prevention
- D . Cloud Access and Security Brokers (CASB)
- E . Database Activity Monitoring
What is defined as the process by which an opposing party may obtain private documents for use in litigation?
- A . Discovery
- B . Custody
- C . Subpoena
- D . Risk Assessment
- E . Scope
What is the primary function of landing zones or account factories in cloud environments?
- A . Provide cost-saving recommendations for cloud resources
- B . Consistent configurations and policies for new deployments
- C . Enhance the performance of cloud applications
- D . Automate the deployment of microservices in the cloud
In which type of environment is it impractical to allow the customer to conduct their own audit, making it important that the data center operators are required to provide auditing for the customers?
- A . Multi-application, single tenant environments
- B . Long distance relationships
- C . Multi-tenant environments
- D . Distributed computing arrangements
- E . Single tenant environments
A company plans to shift its data processing tasks to the cloud.
Which type of cloud workload best describes the use of software emulations of physical computers?
- A . Platform as a Service (PaaS)
- B . Serverless Functions (FaaS)
- C . Containers
- D . Virtual Machines (VMs)
D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Virtual Machines (VMs). In the context of cloud computing, Virtual Machines (VMs)are software-based emulations of physical computers. They run an operating system (OS) and applications just like a physical machine would. VMs are often hosted on physical servers using hypervisors, which allow multiple VMs to run on a single physical machine, thereby sharing resources like CPU, memory, and storage.
Why Virtual Machines (VMs) are Suitable for Data Processing:
Full OS Environment’s provide a complete operating system environment, making them suitable for running complex data processing tasks that require specific OS configurations.
Isolation: Each VM operates independently, providing isolation between different workloads, which is
essential when processing sensitive or diverse data sets.
Scalability: Cloud providers offer VM scaling options to meet the demands of data processing workloads.
Compatibility’s can run legacy applications that may not be compatible with newer cloud-native technologies.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
