Practice Free CCCS-203b Exam Online Questions
Question #61
What is the primary reason for reviewing the base image of a container when performing a security assessment?
- A . The base image configuration ensures proper runtime performance.
- B . Base images must always include minimal layers to optimize storage.
- C . The base image often contains outdated dependencies that may introduce vulnerabilities.
- D . Reviewing the base image guarantees compatibility with orchestrators like Kubernetes.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Option A: While runtime performance can be influenced by the image configuration, the primary focus of a security assessment is identifying and mitigating vulnerabilities, not performance optimization.
Option B: Although using minimal layers can improve storage efficiency, the goal of reviewing base images is to ensure security, not necessarily to reduce the image size.
Option C: The base image forms the foundation of a container. If it contains outdated or vulnerable dependencies, they can propagate to any containers built from it. Regularly reviewing and updating the
base image ensures that known vulnerabilities are mitigated, which is critical for maintaining a secure environment.
Option D: Compatibility with orchestrators like Kubernetes is generally determined by the image’s runtime requirements, not by reviewing the base image for security.
C
Explanation:
Option A: While runtime performance can be influenced by the image configuration, the primary focus of a security assessment is identifying and mitigating vulnerabilities, not performance optimization.
Option B: Although using minimal layers can improve storage efficiency, the goal of reviewing base images is to ensure security, not necessarily to reduce the image size.
Option C: The base image forms the foundation of a container. If it contains outdated or vulnerable dependencies, they can propagate to any containers built from it. Regularly reviewing and updating the
base image ensures that known vulnerabilities are mitigated, which is critical for maintaining a secure environment.
Option D: Compatibility with orchestrators like Kubernetes is generally determined by the image’s runtime requirements, not by reviewing the base image for security.
Question #62
When analyzing cloud findings for misconfigurations, which of the following would be considered a high-risk practice that should be flagged for remediation?
- A . Using network security groups (NSGs) to limit traffic to trusted IP addresses
- B . Allowing unrestricted inbound traffic to cloud-hosted resources on port 22
- C . Implementing role-based access control (RBAC) policies for cloud resources
- D . Enforcing multi-factor authentication (MFA) for all cloud administrator accounts
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Option A: NSGs are an effective way to control network access to resources. Limiting traffic to trusted IPs reduces the attack surface and is a good security practice.
Option B: Port 22 is typically used for SSH access. Allowing unrestricted inbound traffic to this port exposes cloud-hosted resources to brute-force attacks and unauthorized access. This is a high-risk practice and a common misconfiguration that should be remediated by limiting access to trusted IPs or using VPNs.
Option C: RBAC is a best practice for managing permissions in the cloud. It ensures that users have access only to the resources they need, reducing the risk of over-privileged accounts. This is not a high-risk practice.
Option D: MFA is a critical security control that protects against unauthorized access, even if credentials are compromised. Enforcing MFA is a recommended practice, not a high-risk one.
B
Explanation:
Option A: NSGs are an effective way to control network access to resources. Limiting traffic to trusted IPs reduces the attack surface and is a good security practice.
Option B: Port 22 is typically used for SSH access. Allowing unrestricted inbound traffic to this port exposes cloud-hosted resources to brute-force attacks and unauthorized access. This is a high-risk practice and a common misconfiguration that should be remediated by limiting access to trusted IPs or using VPNs.
Option C: RBAC is a best practice for managing permissions in the cloud. It ensures that users have access only to the resources they need, reducing the risk of over-privileged accounts. This is not a high-risk practice.
Option D: MFA is a critical security control that protects against unauthorized access, even if credentials are compromised. Enforcing MFA is a recommended practice, not a high-risk one.
Question #63
When managing API clients and keys in the Falcon platform, what is the best practice to ensure security and operational integrity?
- A . Rotate API keys regularly and delete unused keys.
- B . Share API keys with all third-party vendors for easy integration.
- C . Use one API key for all integrations to reduce complexity in management.
- D . Grant API keys full access to all modules for flexibility and ease of use.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Option A: Regularly rotating API keys and deleting unused ones minimizes the risk of unauthorized access, ensuring operational security and compliance with best practices.
Option B: Sharing API keys with multiple vendors is insecure and violates best practices. Each vendor should have unique keys with specific permissions.
Option C: Using a single API key for multiple integrations increases the risk of compromise and makes it harder to isolate issues or rotate keys when needed.
Option D: Granting full access unnecessarily increases the attack surface and violates the principle of least privilege, which is essential for security.
A
Explanation:
Option A: Regularly rotating API keys and deleting unused ones minimizes the risk of unauthorized access, ensuring operational security and compliance with best practices.
Option B: Sharing API keys with multiple vendors is insecure and violates best practices. Each vendor should have unique keys with specific permissions.
Option C: Using a single API key for multiple integrations increases the risk of compromise and makes it harder to isolate issues or rotate keys when needed.
Option D: Granting full access unnecessarily increases the attack surface and violates the principle of least privilege, which is essential for security.
Question #64
Which of the following best practices should you follow when creating custom IOM rules in CrowdStrike Falcon to prevent accidental disruptions in operations?
- A . Use the "Regex" condition type to cover all possible indicators with a single rule.
- B . Disable logging for custom rules to reduce performance overhead.
- C . Apply the rule to all systems in the organization without exclusions.
- D . Test the rule in a Detection-only mode before enabling blocking.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Option A: This is incorrect because while Regex can be powerful, overly broad patterns may result in false positives or system disruptions. It is better to create specific rules tailored to precise indicators.
Option B: This is incorrect because logging is crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of IOM rules and troubleshooting issues. Disabling logs would make it difficult to audit the rule’s impact and effectiveness.
Option C: This is incorrect because applying a rule universally can lead to unintended consequences, especially if critical systems or services rely on the flagged entity. You should define exclusions for known benign use cases.
Option D: This is correct because testing in Detection-only mode allows you to monitor the rule’s effectiveness and ensure it does not cause unintended disruptions before enabling the "Block" action. This approach minimizes risks associated with false positives.
D
Explanation:
Option A: This is incorrect because while Regex can be powerful, overly broad patterns may result in false positives or system disruptions. It is better to create specific rules tailored to precise indicators.
Option B: This is incorrect because logging is crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of IOM rules and troubleshooting issues. Disabling logs would make it difficult to audit the rule’s impact and effectiveness.
Option C: This is incorrect because applying a rule universally can lead to unintended consequences, especially if critical systems or services rely on the flagged entity. You should define exclusions for known benign use cases.
Option D: This is correct because testing in Detection-only mode allows you to monitor the rule’s effectiveness and ensure it does not cause unintended disruptions before enabling the "Block" action. This approach minimizes risks associated with false positives.
Question #65
Your organization needs to ensure continuous monitoring of its cloud environments while balancing operational costs.
Which of the following options is the most appropriate frequency for a cloud security posture assessment schedule in CrowdStrike Falcon for a dynamic production environment?
- A . Only after significant changes are made to the cloud environment
- B . Weekly
- C . Every 30 minutes
- D . Daily
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Option A: Running assessments only after significant changes leaves security gaps during periods of no updates. Regular, automated assessments are necessary for comprehensive security monitoring.
Option B: Weekly assessments may suffice for static or less critical environments, but they are inadequate for dynamic production environments where daily updates are crucial for maintaining security posture.
Option C: Running assessments every 30 minutes is overly frequent for most use cases and can increase operational costs without providing significant added value. This frequency may be justified only in environments with extremely high change rates.
Option D: Daily assessments strike a balance between timely security posture updates and cost efficiency, especially in dynamic production environments where changes occur regularly but not continuously.
D
Explanation:
Option A: Running assessments only after significant changes leaves security gaps during periods of no updates. Regular, automated assessments are necessary for comprehensive security monitoring.
Option B: Weekly assessments may suffice for static or less critical environments, but they are inadequate for dynamic production environments where daily updates are crucial for maintaining security posture.
Option C: Running assessments every 30 minutes is overly frequent for most use cases and can increase operational costs without providing significant added value. This frequency may be justified only in environments with extremely high change rates.
Option D: Daily assessments strike a balance between timely security posture updates and cost efficiency, especially in dynamic production environments where changes occur regularly but not continuously.
Question #66
Which of the following is an example of automated remediation within CrowdStrike’s cloud security ecosystem?
- A . Manually updating firewall rules to block known malicious IPs.
- B . Generating a weekly summary of security incidents for analysis.
- C . Automatically isolating a virtual machine upon detecting malware.
- D . Sending a notification email to administrators after a detection.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Option A: Manual actions do not qualify as automated remediation. Automated remediation would involve dynamic blocking without manual intervention.
Option B: While useful for insights, this is a reporting function and not an automated remediation action.
Automated remediation focuses on immediate response to incidents.
Option C: Automated remediation involves taking immediate action, such as isolating a compromised virtual machine, based on predefined triggers. This minimizes the risk of further spread or damage.
Option D: Sending notifications is an alerting function, not remediation. Remediation involves actions that directly address and mitigate the threat.
C
Explanation:
Option A: Manual actions do not qualify as automated remediation. Automated remediation would involve dynamic blocking without manual intervention.
Option B: While useful for insights, this is a reporting function and not an automated remediation action.
Automated remediation focuses on immediate response to incidents.
Option C: Automated remediation involves taking immediate action, such as isolating a compromised virtual machine, based on predefined triggers. This minimizes the risk of further spread or damage.
Option D: Sending notifications is an alerting function, not remediation. Remediation involves actions that directly address and mitigate the threat.
Question #67
During the registration of a cloud account into the CrowdStrike Falcon platform, a user encounters an error message indicating "Insufficient permissions to access cloud resources."
Which of the following actions should the user take to resolve the issue?
- A . Ensure that the cloud account is part of an active CrowdStrike subscription.
- B . Disable multi-factor authentication (MFA) for the cloud account temporarily.
- C . Assign the CrowdStrike IAM role to the cloud account with all necessary permissions.
- D . Use the CrowdStrike service account credentials directly to bypass IAM role issues.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Option A: While an active subscription is required for integration, it is unrelated to the permissions issue.
A subscription mismatch would generate a different error message.
Option B: This is incorrect because MFA is unrelated to the permissions required for integration. Disabling MFA would compromise security and would not address the root cause of insufficient permissions.
Option C: The most common cause of this error is that the necessary IAM role has not been properly assigned or lacks permissions to access the required cloud resources. The CrowdStrike documentation specifies the IAM policies required for integration, and ensuring these are correctly configured resolves the issue.
Option D: This is incorrect because CrowdStrike never recommends using service account credentials directly for security reasons. The integration relies on IAM roles for secure delegation of access.
C
Explanation:
Option A: While an active subscription is required for integration, it is unrelated to the permissions issue.
A subscription mismatch would generate a different error message.
Option B: This is incorrect because MFA is unrelated to the permissions required for integration. Disabling MFA would compromise security and would not address the root cause of insufficient permissions.
Option C: The most common cause of this error is that the necessary IAM role has not been properly assigned or lacks permissions to access the required cloud resources. The CrowdStrike documentation specifies the IAM policies required for integration, and ensuring these are correctly configured resolves the issue.
Option D: This is incorrect because CrowdStrike never recommends using service account credentials directly for security reasons. The integration relies on IAM roles for secure delegation of access.
Question #68
Which data sources does CrowdStrike CIEM primarily analyze to identify privileged accounts without multi-factor authentication (MFA)?
- A . Endpoint login logs collected by CrowdStrike Falcon.
- B . Email activity logs from integrated cloud email platforms.
- C . Firewall access control lists (ACLs) for privileged IP ranges.
- D . Cloud provider IAM policy configurations and MFA enforcement settings.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Option A: Falcon focuses on endpoint activity and threat detection, which is unrelated to IAM configurations or MFA enforcement. CIEM is tailored to cloud IAM analysis.
Option B: Email activity logs are unrelated to identifying privileged accounts or MFA enforcement.
CIEM focuses on cloud provider IAM policies and MFA settings to detect misconfigurations effectively.
Option C: Firewall ACLs are used to control network traffic and are not relevant to cloud IAM or MFA configurations. CIEM operates on IAM data and cloud provider configurations, not network-level settings.
Option D: CIEM analyzes IAM policy configurations to identify accounts with privileged roles and cross-references these findings with MFA enforcement settings to determine which accounts are not protected by MFA. This approach ensures precise detection of misconfigured accounts that could pose security risks.
D
Explanation:
Option A: Falcon focuses on endpoint activity and threat detection, which is unrelated to IAM configurations or MFA enforcement. CIEM is tailored to cloud IAM analysis.
Option B: Email activity logs are unrelated to identifying privileged accounts or MFA enforcement.
CIEM focuses on cloud provider IAM policies and MFA settings to detect misconfigurations effectively.
Option C: Firewall ACLs are used to control network traffic and are not relevant to cloud IAM or MFA configurations. CIEM operates on IAM data and cloud provider configurations, not network-level settings.
Option D: CIEM analyzes IAM policy configurations to identify accounts with privileged roles and cross-references these findings with MFA enforcement settings to determine which accounts are not protected by MFA. This approach ensures precise detection of misconfigured accounts that could pose security risks.
Question #69
Which setting is configurable when editing a Falcon cloud security posture policy?
- A . Assigning priority levels to specific misconfiguration rules.
- B . Activating Falcon sensors for unmanaged endpoints.
- C . Enabling real-time detection for malware in S3 buckets.
- D . Adjusting the logging level of cloud provider APIs.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Option A: When editing a cloud security posture policy, administrators can assign priority levels or severities (e.g., critical, high, medium, low) to specific rules. This helps in categorizing and addressing misconfigurations based on their impact on security and compliance.
Option B: Falcon sensors are activated and managed separately from cloud security posture policies. The policies focus on cloud configuration assessments, not endpoint management.
Option C: Falcon cloud security posture policies are focused on misconfigurations and compliance, not real-time malware detection. Real-time malware scanning in S3 buckets would be managed by a separate feature or service.
Option D: Cloud provider API logging levels are managed in the respective cloud provider’s settings, not within Falcon’s cloud security posture policy configurations.
A
Explanation:
Option A: When editing a cloud security posture policy, administrators can assign priority levels or severities (e.g., critical, high, medium, low) to specific rules. This helps in categorizing and addressing misconfigurations based on their impact on security and compliance.
Option B: Falcon sensors are activated and managed separately from cloud security posture policies. The policies focus on cloud configuration assessments, not endpoint management.
Option C: Falcon cloud security posture policies are focused on misconfigurations and compliance, not real-time malware detection. Real-time malware scanning in S3 buckets would be managed by a separate feature or service.
Option D: Cloud provider API logging levels are managed in the respective cloud provider’s settings, not within Falcon’s cloud security posture policy configurations.
Question #70
Which of the following security issues is most critical to address in a container image according to the Image Assessment report from CrowdStrike?
- A . High-severity CVE vulnerabilities in system libraries
- B . Deprecated or unused packages in the image
- C . Missing comments in the Dockerfile
- D . Detected hardcoded credentials for a development database
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Option A: High-severity Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVEs) indicate critical security risks, such as the ability to execute arbitrary code, privilege escalation, or data exfiltration. System libraries are
fundamental to the container’s operation, and their vulnerabilities can be exploited to compromise the entire container or host. Addressing these vulnerabilities is crucial to prevent exploitation.
Option B: Deprecated or unused packages can increase the attack surface but are not as immediately critical as high-severity CVEs. These can be removed to streamline the image but do not represent an active threat unless they contain exploitable vulnerabilities.
Option C: Comments in a Dockerfile improve maintainability and readability but have no bearing on the security of the image itself. This is a best practice for developers, not a critical security issue.
Option D: While hardcoded credentials are a significant security concern, they typically represent an issue of configuration or secret management rather than a systemic vulnerability in the image. They may also be environment-specific, making them less critical than systemic vulnerabilities like CVEs in system libraries.
A
Explanation:
Option A: High-severity Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVEs) indicate critical security risks, such as the ability to execute arbitrary code, privilege escalation, or data exfiltration. System libraries are
fundamental to the container’s operation, and their vulnerabilities can be exploited to compromise the entire container or host. Addressing these vulnerabilities is crucial to prevent exploitation.
Option B: Deprecated or unused packages can increase the attack surface but are not as immediately critical as high-severity CVEs. These can be removed to streamline the image but do not represent an active threat unless they contain exploitable vulnerabilities.
Option C: Comments in a Dockerfile improve maintainability and readability but have no bearing on the security of the image itself. This is a best practice for developers, not a critical security issue.
Option D: While hardcoded credentials are a significant security concern, they typically represent an issue of configuration or secret management rather than a systemic vulnerability in the image. They may also be environment-specific, making them less critical than systemic vulnerabilities like CVEs in system libraries.